Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a female client's blood pressure because she reported feeling dizzy. The blood pressure cuff is inflated to 140 mm Hg and as soon as the cuff is deflated a Korotkoff sound is heard. Which intervention should the nurse implement next?

• A. Wait 1 minute and palpate the systolic pressure before auscultating again.
• B. Increase the inflation pressure by 20 mm Hg and measure again.
• C. Switch to a larger cuff and repeat the measurement.
• D. Document the finding as normal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If a Korotkoff sound is heard immediately upon deflation, it may indicate an inaccurate reading. Waiting and palpating the systolic pressure can help confirm the accuracy of the measurement. Choice A is the correct intervention because it allows the nurse to ensure the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the inflation pressure is not necessary in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as switching to a larger cuff is not warranted based on the information provided. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the finding as normal without further verification could lead to inaccurate information.

2. A female client has been taking a high dose of prednisone, a corticosteroid, for several months. After stopping the medication abruptly, the client reports feeling 'very tired'. Which nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Measure vital signs
• B. Auscultate breath sounds
• C. Palpate the abdomen
• D. Observe the skin for bruising

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure vital signs. Abrupt withdrawal of exogenous corticosteroids can precipitate adrenal insufficiency, potentially leading to shock. Monitoring vital signs is crucial in identifying any signs of adrenal insufficiency, such as hypotension or tachycardia. Auscultating breath sounds (choice B) may be important in other situations, such as respiratory conditions, but it is not the priority in this case. Palpating the abdomen (choice C) and observing the skin for bruising (choice D) are not directly related to the potential complications of corticosteroid withdrawal and adrenal insufficiency.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this client's plan of care?

• A. Record urine output every hour
• B. Monitor blood pressure frequently
• C. Evaluate neurological status
• D. Maintain seizure precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure frequently is the highest priority intervention for a client diagnosed with pheochromocytoma. This rare tumor can lead to life-threatening hypertension due to catecholamine secretion. Evaluating neurological status and maintaining seizure precautions are important but are not the highest priority in this case. Recording urine output, though essential for overall assessment, is not the priority compared to monitoring blood pressure in a client with pheochromocytoma.

4. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner before performing catheter care. The UAP rubs both hands thoroughly for 2 minutes while standing at the bedside. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the UAP to remain in the client's room until the procedure is completed.
• B. Explain that the hand rub can be completed in less than 2 minutes.
• C. Inform the UAP that handwashing helps to promote better asepsis.
• D. Determine why the UAP was not wearing gloves in the client's room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Explaining that hand rubs can be effective with less time allows the UAP to perform the procedure more efficiently while maintaining asepsis. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to remain in the client's room until the procedure is completed. Choice C is incorrect as the UAP was using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner, not handwashing. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not mention any issue with glove usage, so it is not relevant to the situation at hand.

5. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is showing signs of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in his care plan?

• A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
• B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
• C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
• D. Monitor for the onset of polyuria greater than 150 ml/hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention for the nurse to include in the care plan is to evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations. This is crucial in monitoring renal function and detecting any worsening renal impairment. Option A is not directly related to managing renal function in this case. Option C focuses more on urinary characteristics rather than renal function monitoring. Option D addresses polyuria, which is an excessive urine output, but it does not specifically address the need for evaluating renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.

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