Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a female client's blood pressure because she reported feeling dizzy. The blood pressure cuff is inflated to 140 mm Hg and as soon as the cuff is deflated a Korotkoff sound is heard. Which intervention should the nurse implement next?

• A. Wait 1 minute and palpate the systolic pressure before auscultating again.
• B. Increase the inflation pressure by 20 mm Hg and measure again.
• C. Switch to a larger cuff and repeat the measurement.
• D. Document the finding as normal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If a Korotkoff sound is heard immediately upon deflation, it may indicate an inaccurate reading. Waiting and palpating the systolic pressure can help confirm the accuracy of the measurement. Choice A is the correct intervention because it allows the nurse to ensure the accuracy of the blood pressure reading. Choice B is incorrect as increasing the inflation pressure is not necessary in this situation. Choice C is also incorrect as switching to a larger cuff is not warranted based on the information provided. Choice D is incorrect because documenting the finding as normal without further verification could lead to inaccurate information.

2. In preparing assignments for the shift, which client is best for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN)?

• A. An older client who fell yesterday and is now complaining of diplopia.
• B. An adult newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and high cholesterol.
• C. A client with pancreatic cancer who is experiencing intractable pain.
• D. An older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best client for the charge nurse to assign to a practical nurse (PN) is an older client post-stroke who is aphasic with right-sided hemiplegia. This client is stable and suitable for care by a PN under supervision. Choices A, B, and C present clients with more complex and acute conditions that would require a higher level of nursing expertise and intervention.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum sodium
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is undergoing erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. Erythropoietin can stimulate red blood cell production, which may lead to an increase in potassium levels, predisposing the client to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels helps in early detection of hyperkalemia and appropriate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although hemoglobin, serum sodium, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor in various clinical conditions, they are not specifically associated with erythropoietin therapy in chronic kidney disease.

4. The healthcare provider should observe most closely for drug toxicity when a client receives a medication that has which characteristic?

• A. Low bioavailability
• B. Rapid onset of action
• C. Short half-life
• D. Narrow therapeutic index

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, narrow therapeutic index. Narrow therapeutic index (NTI) drugs are defined as those drugs where small differences in dose or blood concentration may lead to serious therapeutic failures or adverse drug reactions. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the risk of drug toxicity. Low bioavailability (Choice A) refers to the amount of drug that enters the bloodstream unchanged after administration. Rapid onset of action (Choice B) and short half-life (Choice C) are characteristics related to drug effectiveness and metabolism but do not necessarily indicate a higher risk of drug toxicity.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• B. Crepitus around the insertion site
• C. Subcutaneous emphysema
• D. Drainage of 50 ml per hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Subcutaneous emphysema requires immediate intervention in a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax as it can indicate a pneumothorax recurrence or air leak. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Crepitus around the insertion site can be expected post-procedure and may not necessitate immediate action. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.

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