Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Elevated liver enzymes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with right-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) and peripheral edema (Choice B) are common findings in right-sided heart failure but do not indicate acute deterioration requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice D) may be seen in chronic heart failure but do not warrant immediate action compared to the urgent need to address pulmonary congestion indicated by crackles in the lungs.

2. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the pediatrician's office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the shoe and pierced the bottom of the child's foot. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment
• B. Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours.
• C. Have the mother check the child's temperature every 4 hours for the next 24 hours
• D. Transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin injection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to implement is to cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment to prevent infection. In cases of puncture wounds like stepping on a rusty nail, the immediate concern is to reduce the risk of infection. Providing teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours is important as well, but it should come after the wound is cleansed. Checking the child's temperature and transferring to the emergency department for a gamma globulin injection are not the immediate priorities in this scenario.

3. An older female client tells the nurse that her muscles have gradually been getting weaker. What is the best initial response by the nurse?

• A. Explain that this is an expected occurrence with aging.
• B. Observe the lower extremities for signs of muscle atrophy.
• C. Review the medical record for recent diagnostic test results.
• D. Ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best initial response by the nurse when the client reports muscle weakness is to ask the client to describe the changes that have occurred. This approach allows the nurse to gain a better understanding of the client's experience, the extent of weakness, any associated symptoms, and potential triggers. By actively listening to the client's description, the nurse can gather valuable information that will aid in a comprehensive assessment and development of a tailored care plan. Choice A is incorrect because assuming muscle weakness is solely due to aging without further assessment can lead to overlooking potential underlying causes. Choice B is incorrect as observing for signs of muscle atrophy should come after gathering information directly from the client. Choice C is incorrect as reviewing diagnostic test results should not be the initial step when the client's current experience is being shared.

4. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess for this client?

• A. Assess distal pulses and signs of peripheral edema
• B. Determine the client's level of orientation and cognition
• C. Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history
• D. Ask the client about exposure to environmental heat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history. The client's presentation is indicative of digitalis toxicity, commonly associated with medications like digoxin (Lanoxin) used in heart failure treatment. Understanding the client's medication history, particularly the use of digoxin, is crucial in confirming and managing digitalis toxicity. Assessing distal pulses and signs of peripheral edema (Choice A) may be relevant in heart failure but are not the priority in this case. Determining the client's level of orientation and cognition (Choice B) and asking about exposure to environmental heat (Choice D) are not directly related to the client's current symptoms and are less pertinent in this scenario.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with CKD as it indicates severe hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Serum sodium levels within the normal range (135 mEq/L) are not immediately concerning. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL may indicate impaired kidney function but does not require immediate intervention for hyperkalemia. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL is within normal limits and does not directly correlate with hyperkalemia in this scenario.

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