Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Elevated liver enzymes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with right-sided heart failure, crackles in the lungs are the most concerning finding as they indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires immediate intervention. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) and peripheral edema (Choice B) are common findings in right-sided heart failure but do not indicate acute deterioration requiring immediate intervention. Elevated liver enzymes (Choice D) may be seen in chronic heart failure but do not warrant immediate action compared to the urgent need to address pulmonary congestion indicated by crackles in the lungs.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Jugular venous distention
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion in a client with left-sided heart failure and require immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Crackles suggest fluid accumulation in the lungs, leading to impaired gas exchange and potentially respiratory distress. Shortness of breath, jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema are common manifestations of heart failure but do not directly indicate acute respiratory compromise like crackles in the lungs do.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum triglycerides
• C. Serum glucose
• D. Serum triglycerides

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum triglycerides should be monitored closely in a client receiving TPN as they may indicate hyperlipidemia, which is a potential complication of TPN. Monitoring serum triglycerides is essential to prevent complications such as hypertriglyceridemia. Serum calcium and glucose levels are also important to monitor in clients receiving TPN, but in this scenario, serum triglycerides take priority due to the risk of hyperlipidemia.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of hypertension who is currently taking a diuretic. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
• B. Blood pressure of 148/90 mmHg
• C. Pulse rate of 62 beats per minute
• D. Blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and places the client at risk for cardiac arrhythmias, requiring immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can result from diuretic use and can lead to serious complications such as irregular heart rhythms. Monitoring and correcting potassium levels are crucial in preventing adverse cardiac events. The other options, though important, do not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the low potassium level.

5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, what finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously, if the client develops stridor, it is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are important to assess, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and would not require the same level of urgent intervention as stridor.

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