Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most concerning?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Crackles in the lungs
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is a sign of increased central venous pressure but is not as concerning as pulmonary congestion. Crackles in the lungs (Choice B) are common in heart failure due to fluid accumulation but are not as immediately concerning as severe shortness of breath. Peripheral edema (Choice D) is a manifestation of fluid retention in the body but is less indicative of acute pulmonary distress compared to shortness of breath.

2. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products while in the operating room. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, he is being mechanically ventilated, and his oxygen saturation is 87%. His laboratory values include hemoglobin 7.0 g/dL, platelets 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells 1,500/mm³. Based on these assessment findings, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
• B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
• C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
• D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation at 90%.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of severe anemia and hypovolemic shock, indicated by low hemoglobin levels and hypotension. The first priority is to address the low hemoglobin by transfusing packed red blood cells to improve oxygen-carrying capacity and perfusion to vital organs. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures is important for identifying potential infections, infusing normal saline can help with volume expansion but does not address the primary issue of severe anemia. Titrating oxygen to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90% is crucial but should follow the administration of packed red blood cells to optimize oxygen delivery.

3. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
• B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
• C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
• D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.

4. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives a change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?

• A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing.
• B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
• C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
• D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on the dressing but is presenting with fever and chills requires immediate attention. This presentation raises concerns for peritonitis, a serious complication that necessitates prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk for a life-threatening condition like peritonitis, making them lower priority compared to choice D.

5. A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed due to early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assign a UAP to assist the client with a warm shower early in the morning.
• B. Administer anti-inflammatory medication before the procedure.
• C. Encourage the client to perform range-of-motion exercises.
• D. Reschedule the procedure for later in the day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A warm shower can help alleviate stiffness, allowing the client to be more comfortable and mobile before the procedure. This intervention promotes increased comfort and mobility, which may help the client proceed with the procedure later in the day. Administering anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) may be helpful but may take time to be effective, while range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) may be challenging for the client due to stiffness. Rescheduling the procedure (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to alleviate stiffness.

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