Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Decreased urine output in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires immediate intervention because it can indicate potential complications such as fluid overload or kidney dysfunction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing renal function and fluid balance in patients on TPN. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours could be a concern but may not be as urgent as addressing decreased urine output. A temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C) is slightly elevated but may not be directly related to TPN administration unless there are other symptoms of infection present.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning effectively?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation indicating effective functioning of the chest tube. This bubbling signifies that the suction system is working correctly and maintaining the desired negative pressure in the pleural space. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests an air leak, which is not a normal finding. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber may indicate a blockage or lack of communication between the pleural space and the water-seal, which is not ideal. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is a normal finding, but it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the chest tube function.

3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with sudden severe abdominal pain. Which finding indicates the possibility of a perforated ulcer?

• A. Bowel sounds are hyperactive in all quadrants.
• B. Abdomen is soft and nondistended.
• C. The client reports sudden severe abdominal pain.
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sudden severe abdominal pain is a key clinical manifestation of a perforated ulcer. The sudden onset of severe pain is concerning for a perforation in the ulcer, which can lead to peritonitis if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hyperactive bowel sounds, a soft and nondistended abdomen, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg are not specific indicators of a perforated ulcer. Hyperactive bowel sounds may suggest increased gastrointestinal motility, a soft abdomen may not necessarily indicate a perforation, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not directly relate to a perforated ulcer.

4. A government office worker is seen in the emergency room after opening an envelope containing a powder-like substance which is being tested for anthrax. Which discharge instruction should the nurse provide the client concerning inhalation anthrax?

• A. return to the emergency room if flu-like symptoms develop within 42 days
• B. notify co-workers to get the anthrax vaccine at the public health department
• C. isolation from friends and family members is recommended for 3 weeks
• D. cleanse all surfaces touched with pre-moistened antibacterial wipes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to return to the emergency room if flu-like symptoms develop within 42 days. Flu-like symptoms can be an early sign of inhalation anthrax, and prompt medical intervention is crucial. Choice B is incorrect because the focus should be on the affected individual seeking medical attention rather than vaccinating others. Choice C is incorrect as isolation from friends and family members is not a standard recommendation for inhalation anthrax. Choice D is also incorrect as cleansing surfaces is important for infection control but may not be the priority when facing potential exposure to anthrax.

5. When planning a scoliosis screening clinic, which age group should be included?

• A. early adolescent girls
• B. late adolescent boys
• C. 7-10 year old boys
• D. preschoolers of both genders

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is early adolescent girls. Scoliosis is most commonly diagnosed during early adolescence, with girls being more affected than boys. Including early adolescent girls in the screening clinic aligns with the age group that is at higher risk for scoliosis. Late adolescent boys (choice B) are less likely to develop scoliosis compared to early adolescent girls. 7-10 year old boys (choice C) are typically younger than the age group where scoliosis is commonly diagnosed. Preschoolers of both genders (choice D) are too young for scoliosis screening as the condition usually manifests during adolescence.

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