Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Decreased urine output in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires immediate intervention because it can indicate potential complications such as fluid overload or kidney dysfunction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing renal function and fluid balance in patients on TPN. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours could be a concern but may not be as urgent as addressing decreased urine output. A temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C) is slightly elevated but may not be directly related to TPN administration unless there are other symptoms of infection present.

2. The client, who is 6 weeks pregnant, is being educated by the nurse on prenatal care. Which statement indicates that the client comprehends the nurse's instructions?

• A. I will increase my intake of vitamin C.
• B. I will avoid alcohol and tobacco.
• C. I will need to take folic acid supplements.
• D. I will avoid taking any medication without consulting my healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During pregnancy, it is crucial to avoid taking any medication without consulting a healthcare provider to prevent harm to the developing fetus. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects of prenatal care but do not specifically address the potential risks associated with taking medications during pregnancy. Increasing intake of vitamin C (Choice A) is beneficial but does not address medication safety. Avoiding alcohol and tobacco (Choice B) is essential, but the question focuses on medication safety. Taking folic acid supplements (Choice C) is vital for neural tube development but does not cover the broader topic of medication safety.

3. During a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

• A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
• B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
• C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
• D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention. He has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including smoking and high cholesterol, which significantly increase his risk. Addressing these modifiable risk factors is crucial in preventing cardiovascular events. The daughter (Choice B) and mother (Choice C) also have risk factors, but the father's combination of smoking and high cholesterol places him at higher immediate risk, demanding priority intervention. The 12-year-old son (Choice D) with a normal weight and an active lifestyle has a lower risk profile and does not require immediate intervention compared to the father.

4. When visiting a community health clinic, a client's blood pressure is measured at 146/94. What information should the nurse provide the client?

• A. Participate in an exercise program for 6 weeks
• B. Obtain blood pressure daily for 2 weeks
• C. Increase dietary intake of omega-3 fatty acids
• D. Begin a low sodium diet immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to begin a low sodium diet immediately. High sodium intake can contribute to elevated blood pressure levels. By reducing sodium intake, blood pressure can be effectively lowered. Option A, participating in an exercise program, is beneficial for overall health but may not provide immediate impact on blood pressure. Option B, obtaining blood pressure daily for 2 weeks, may not address the underlying cause or provide immediate intervention. Option C, increasing dietary intake of omega-3 fatty acids, though beneficial for heart health, may not have an immediate impact on lowering blood pressure compared to reducing sodium intake.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

Similar Questions