Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

2. A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Wear a gown and gloves.
• B. Have the client wear a mask.
• C. Perform hand hygiene.
• D. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to assign the client to a negative air-flow room (Choice D). Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, including isolating the client in a negative pressure air-flow room to prevent the spread of the infection to others. Choice A (Wear a gown and gloves) is important for standard precautions but does not address the specific airborne precautions needed for tuberculosis. Choice B (Have the client wear a mask) may help reduce the spread of respiratory droplets but does not provide adequate protection for healthcare workers or other patients. Choice C (Perform hand hygiene) is essential for infection control but is not the most critical action when dealing with an airborne infection like tuberculosis.

3. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Spider angiomas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral edema in a client with cirrhosis can indicate fluid overload and worsening liver function, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as respiratory distress, cardiac issues, or renal impairment. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Ascites (choice B) is also a common complication of cirrhosis that may require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing peripheral edema. Spider angiomas (choice D) are typically benign skin lesions associated with cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless bleeding or rupture occurs.

4. In conducting a health assessment for a family with a history of diabetes, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

• A. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
• B. a 45-year-old father who is overweight and has high cholesterol
• C. a 17-year-old daughter who is inactive
• D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the 45-year-old father who is overweight and has high cholesterol. He possesses multiple risk factors for diabetes, indicating a need for prioritized evaluation and intervention. The mother's hypertension, the daughter's inactivity, and the son's normal weight and activity level are important factors to consider but do not present as immediate red flags for diabetes risk compared to the father's combination of being overweight and having high cholesterol.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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