the nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube which of these assessments is a priority
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Nutrition HESI Practice Exam

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which of these assessments is a priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for signs of infection at the insertion site is the priority when caring for a client with a chest tube. Infection at the insertion site can lead to serious complications such as empyema or sepsis. Monitoring respiratory status is essential but assessing for infection takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Assessing for subcutaneous emphysema is important but not the priority unless it compromises respiratory function. Checking the chest tube for kinks or occlusions is crucial for proper drainage but is not the priority when infection is a concern.

2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has Crohn's disease about foods to include in her diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Grilled chicken breast is a high-protein, low-fiber food that is well-tolerated by clients with Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disease that often requires a low-fiber diet to reduce irritation to the digestive tract. Vanilla milkshake is high in dairy and sugar content, which may trigger symptoms in some individuals with Crohn's disease. Buttered popcorn and broccoli are high in fiber, which can be difficult for individuals with Crohn's disease to digest and may exacerbate symptoms.

3. During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.

4. A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Sore throat and fever." These symptoms can indicate a serious side effect of chlorpromazine and should be reported immediately. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with adverse effects of chlorpromazine. Changes in libido and breast enlargement are not commonly linked to this medication. Abdominal pain, nausea, and diarrhea are more likely to be gastrointestinal side effects. Dyspnea and nasal congestion are not commonly reported adverse effects of chlorpromazine.

5. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert, but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action. This position can help stimulate voiding due to gravity and normal positioning. Having the client drink water (Choice A) may help, but assisting him to stand is more effective. Crede maneuver (Choice B) is not recommended as it can increase the risk of bladder trauma. Waiting for 2 hours (Choice D) without taking any action is not proactive in addressing the client's inability to void.

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