HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam
1. A 59-year-old male client is brought to the emergency room where he is assessed to have a Glasgow Coma Scale of 3. Based on this assessment, how should the nurse characterize the client's condition?
- A. The client is experiencing increased intracranial pressure
- B. He has a good prognosis for recovery
- C. This client is conscious, but is not oriented to time and place
- D. He is in a coma, and has a very poor prognosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale of 3 indicates severe neurological impairment, suggesting a deep coma or even impending death. This client's condition is critical, and he has a very poor prognosis. Choice A is incorrect because a GCS of 3 does not directly indicate increased intracranial pressure. Choice B is incorrect as a GCS of 3 signifies a grave neurological status. Choice C is incorrect as a GCS of 3 represents a state of unconsciousness rather than being conscious but disoriented.
2. A child with Leukemia is admitted for chemotherapy, and the nursing diagnosis, altered nutrition, less than body requirements related to anorexia, nausea, vomiting is identified. Which intervention should the nurse include in this child's plan of care?
- A. Allow the child to eat foods desired and tolerated
- B. Restrict foods brought from fast food restaurants
- C. Recommend eating the same foods as siblings eat at home
- D. Encourage a variety of large portions of food at every meal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a child with Leukemia undergoing chemotherapy and experiencing altered nutrition, less than body requirements due to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting is to allow the child to eat foods desired and tolerated. This intervention helps improve the child's nutrition intake during chemotherapy. Choice B is incorrect because restricting foods may further limit the child's nutritional intake. Choice C is incorrect because recommending eating the same foods as siblings may not align with the child's preferences or needs during treatment. Choice D is incorrect as encouraging large portions of food at every meal may overwhelm the child and be counterproductive to their nutritional needs.
3. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?
- A. Two to three soft bowel movements per day
- B. Increased serum ammonia levels
- C. Decreased white blood cell count
- D. Soft, formed stool twice a day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.
4. A client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF) has a 24-hour urine output of 400 ml. How much oral intake should the nurse allow this client to have during the next 24 hours?
- A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
- B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
- C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
- D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), the goal is to prevent fluid overload. Since the client has a low urine output of 400 ml in 24 hours, limiting oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml is appropriate. Encouraging unrestricted oral fluids (Choice A) can exacerbate fluid overload. Decreasing oral intake to 200 ml (Choice B) would be too restrictive and may lead to dehydration. Allowing the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake (Choice C) would not account for other sources of fluid intake and output, potentially resulting in fluid imbalance.
5. The nurse is evaluating the health status of an older client. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Client reports decreased urine output
- B. Client reports loss of appetite
- C. Client reports pain in the lower back
- D. Client reports a persistent cough
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pain in the lower back is a significant finding in an older client as it can indicate underlying issues such as kidney problems, spinal issues, or even aortic aneurysm. These conditions can be serious and require prompt medical attention. Decreased urine output (choice A) could indicate dehydration or kidney issues but is not as urgent as lower back pain. Loss of appetite (choice B) may be concerning but is not as critical as the potential life-threatening conditions associated with lower back pain. A persistent cough (choice D) is important to assess but is generally not as urgent as the potential serious implications of lower back pain in an older client.
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