HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (B) is the priority intervention for a client with COPD exacerbation to improve oxygenation. In COPD exacerbation, there is impaired gas exchange leading to hypoxemia, making oxygen therapy the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators (A) helps with bronchodilation but should come after ensuring adequate oxygenation. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (C) and positioning the client in high Fowler's position (D) are also beneficial interventions, but the first step is to address the oxygenation needs of the client.
2. The healthcare provider attaches a pulse oximeter to a client's fingers and obtains an oxygen saturation reading of 91%. Which assessment finding most likely contributes to this reading?
- A. BP 142/88 mmHg
- B. 2+ edema of fingers and hands
- C. Radial pulse volume is +3
- D. Capillary refill time is 2 seconds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Edema in the fingers and hands can impede the proper functioning of the pulse oximeter, leading to a falsely low oxygen saturation reading. Edema alters the transmission of light through the tissues, affecting the accuracy of the measurement. Therefore, the presence of edema in the fingers and hands is the most likely factor contributing to the low oxygen saturation reading of 91%.
3. While reviewing the side effects of a newly prescribed medication, a 72-year-old client notes that one of the side effects is a reduction in sexual drive. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. How will this affect your present sexual activity?
- B. How active is your current sex life?
- C. How has your sex life changed as you have become older?
- D. Tell me about your sexual needs as an older adult.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Option A is the best response as it directly addresses the client's concern about the reduction in sexual drive caused by the medication. It encourages the client to express their thoughts and feelings about how this side effect may impact their current sexual activity, facilitating open communication and understanding between the nurse and the client. Choices B, C, and D are not as appropriate as they do not directly address the client's immediate concern regarding the impact of the medication on their sexual drive.
4. The healthcare professional retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer to the client? (Enter the numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)
- A. 0.8 mL
- B. 0.75 mL
- C. 0.7 mL
- D. 0.9 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, divide the ordered dose (3 mg) by the concentration (4 mg/mL). 3 mg ÷ 4 mg/mL = 0.75 mL. Rounding to the nearest tenth, the correct dose to administer is 0.8 mL.
5. An elderly client with a fractured left hip is on strict bedrest. Which nursing measure is essential to the client's nursing care?
- A. Do not massage any reddened areas.
- B. Encourage passive range of motion exercises on extremities.
- C. Position the client laterally, supine, and prone in sequence.
- D. Gently lift the client when moving into a desired position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The essential nursing measure for a client with a fractured left hip on strict bedrest is to gently lift the client when moving into a desired position (D). This helps to avoid shearing forces and prevents further injury. Massaging reddened areas (A) should be avoided to prevent skin damage. Active range of motion exercises (B) may be limited due to pain and muscle spasms in the affected leg. The position described in (C) is contraindicated for a client with a fractured left hip as it may cause additional harm.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access