HESI RN
Adult Health 1 HESI
1. The nurse assesses a patient who has been hospitalized for 2 days. The patient has been receiving normal saline IV at 100 mL/hr, has a nasogastric tube to low suction, and is NPO. Which assessment finding would be a priority for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
- A. Oral temperature of 100.1°F
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L)
- C. Gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC)
- D. Weight gain of 2 pounds (1 kg) above the admission weight
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority assessment finding for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider is a gradually decreasing level of consciousness (LOC). This change in LOC could indicate fluid and electrolyte disturbances, which require immediate attention to prevent complications. While the other options such as an elevated temperature, serum sodium level, and weight gain are important to note and report, they do not indicate an urgent need for intervention compared to changes in LOC which could signify serious issues that need prompt evaluation and management.
2. Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?
- A. Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot
- B. Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists
- C. Ensure that the knot can be quickly released
- D. Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released to allow for quick intervention if necessary. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice A) may make it more difficult to release quickly in an emergency. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists (Choice B) may compromise circulation and cause discomfort. Moving the ties to secure the restraints to the side rails (Choice D) is not the appropriate action as it can limit the client's movement and access to care.
3. At 01:00 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Leave the room and close the door to the client's room
- B. Assess the appearance of the client's surgical dressing
- C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
- D. Discuss symptoms of sleep deprivation with the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client has a plan to read until feeling sleepy, indicating an intention to sleep. Therefore, offering a PRN sedative-hypnotic (C) is unnecessary, especially since it is a stronger sleep aid. Option (D) is not needed as the client already has a plan to address his sleeplessness. Assessing the surgical dressing (B) is not relevant to the client's immediate need for sleep. Leaving the room and closing the door (A) is the appropriate action to provide a conducive environment for the client to rest.
4. What is the first action the nurse should take when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea soon after insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter?
- A. Notify the health care provider.
- B. Offer reassurance to the patient.
- C. Auscultate the patient’s breath sounds
- D. Give the prescribed PRN morphine sulfate IV
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a patient complains of acute chest pain and dyspnea after the insertion of a centrally inserted IV catheter is to auscultate the patient's breath sounds. This is important to assess for any potential complications such as embolism or pneumothorax, which can present with such symptoms. Auscultation can provide immediate information on the patient's respiratory status and guide further interventions. Notifying the health care provider, offering reassurance, or administering morphine should only be considered after assessing the patient's condition through auscultation.
5. A patient comes to the clinic complaining of frequent, watery stools for the last 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain the baseline weight
- B. Check the patient’s blood pressure
- C. Draw blood for serum electrolyte levels
- D. Ask about any extremity numbness or tingling
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the patient’s blood pressure. Given the patient's symptoms of frequent, watery stools, there is a concern for fluid volume deficit. Assessing the blood pressure helps determine the patient's perfusion status, which is crucial in managing fluid volume deficits. While obtaining baseline weight, drawing blood for serum electrolyte levels, and asking about extremity numbness or tingling are important assessments, checking the blood pressure takes precedence as it provides immediate information on the patient's circulatory status.
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