HESI RN
Adult Health 2 HESI Quizlet
1. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. Patient with a serum potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L who is complaining of abdominal cramping
- B. Patient with a serum sodium level of 145 mEq/L who has a dry mouth and is asking for a glass of water
- C. Patient with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
- D. Patient with a serum phosphorus level of 4.5 mg/dL who has multiple soft tissue calcium-phosphate precipitates
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is patient C with a serum magnesium level of 1.1 mEq/L who has tremors and hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. The low magnesium level and neuromuscular irritability suggest that the patient may be at risk for seizures, which are life-threatening. Assessing and addressing this patient's condition promptly is crucial to prevent complications. Patients A, B, and D have mild electrolyte disturbances or symptoms that require attention, but they are not at immediate risk for life-threatening complications like seizures, unlike patient C.
2. Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?
- A. Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot
- B. Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists
- C. Ensure that the knot can be quickly released
- D. Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released to allow for quick intervention if necessary. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice A) may make it more difficult to release quickly in an emergency. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrists (Choice B) may compromise circulation and cause discomfort. Moving the ties to secure the restraints to the side rails (Choice D) is not the appropriate action as it can limit the client's movement and access to care.
3. A patient who is taking a potassium-wasting diuretic for the treatment of hypertension complains of generalized weakness. It is most appropriate for the nurse to take which action?
- A. Assess for facial muscle spasms.
- B. Ask the patient about loose stools.
- C. Suggest that the patient avoid orange juice with meals.
- D. Ask the healthcare provider to order a basic metabolic panel.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Generalized weakness is a sign of hypokalemia, a potential side effect of potassium-wasting diuretics. By requesting a basic metabolic panel, the nurse can assess the patient's potassium levels. Facial muscle spasms are associated with hypocalcemia, not hypokalemia. Advising the patient to avoid orange juice, which is high in potassium, would be counterproductive if the patient is hypokalemic. Loose stools are typically seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.
4. A patient who has been receiving diuretic therapy is admitted to the emergency department with a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse should alert the healthcare provider immediately that the patient is on which medication?
- A. Oral digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily
- B. Ibuprofen (Motrin) 400 mg every 6 hours
- C. Metoprolol (Lopressor) 12.5 mg orally daily
- D. Lantus insulin 24 U subcutaneously every evening
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hypokalemia increases the risk for digoxin toxicity, which can lead to serious dysrhythmias. Therefore, with a low potassium level, the nurse should immediately alert the healthcare provider about the patient being on oral digoxin. Choices B, C, and D do not pose as much concern with the given potassium level. However, further assessment is still required for these medications.
5. The long-term care nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of protein supplements for an older resident who has a low serum total protein level. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient’s condition has improved?
- A. Hematocrit 28%
- B. Absence of skin tenting
- C. Decreased peripheral edema
- D. Blood pressure 110/72 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The decrease in peripheral edema indicates an improvement in the patient’s protein status. Edema is caused by low oncotic pressure in individuals with low serum protein levels. Good skin turgor is an indicator of fluid balance, not protein status. A low hematocrit could be caused by poor protein intake. Blood pressure does not provide a useful clinical tool for monitoring protein status.
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