Nursing Elites

1. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
• C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
• D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.

2. Upon arrival in the nursery, a newborn infant is breathing satisfactorily but appears dusky. What action should the LPN/LVN take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• B. Suction the infant's nares, then the oral cavity.
• C. Check the infant's oxygen saturation rate.
• D. Position the infant on the right side.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action in this scenario is to check the infant's oxygen saturation rate. This will provide crucial information on the infant's oxygen levels and the need for immediate oxygen therapy. Assessing oxygen saturation is essential in determining the severity of hypoxia and guiding further interventions to ensure adequate oxygenation. Option A is not the priority as immediate intervention related to oxygenation is needed before notifying the healthcare provider. Suctioning (Option B) may be necessary but should come after assessing oxygen saturation. Positioning the infant (Option D) does not address the immediate need to evaluate oxygen levels.

3. A one-day-old neonate develops a cephalohematoma. The nurse should closely assess this neonate for which common complication?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Poor feeding.
• C. Brain injury.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum. As the blood breaks down, there is an increased risk of jaundice due to the release of bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells. Jaundice is a common complication associated with cephalohematoma in neonates. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the neonate for signs of jaundice and manage it accordingly.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate to a laboring client whose blood pressure has increased from 110/60 mmHg to 140/90 mmHg. Which action is the highest priority?

• A. Provide a quiet environment with subdued lighting.
• B. Have calcium gluconate immediately available.
• C. Assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) every 4 hours.
• D. Insert a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Having calcium gluconate readily available is crucial when administering magnesium sulfate, as it serves as the antidote in case of magnesium toxicity. Magnesium sulfate can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac arrest in cases of overdose or toxicity, making the prompt availability of calcium gluconate essential for immediate administration to counteract these effects. Providing a quiet environment with subdued lighting may be beneficial for the client's comfort but is not the highest priority in this situation. Assessing deep tendon reflexes every 4 hours is important when administering magnesium sulfate, but it is not the highest priority compared to having calcium gluconate available. Inserting a Foley catheter with a urimeter to monitor hourly output is not the highest priority when preparing to administer magnesium sulfate in this scenario.

5. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Clonidine hydrochloride
• B. Carbamazepine
• C. Furosemide
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.

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