HESI RN
Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
- C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
- D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?
- A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
- B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
- C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
- D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.
3. The client is 24 hours postpartum and is being discharged. The nurse explains that vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. If the client starts having red bleeding after the color changes, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
- A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
- C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
- D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: If the client experiences red bleeding after the color changes, it may indicate possible hemorrhage or retained placental fragments, which require immediate attention. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt evaluation and management of potential complications.
4. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as
- A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
- B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
- C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
- D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.
5. A client addicted to heroin and newly pregnant asks a nurse about ensuring her baby's health while on methadone. What should the nurse advise?
- A. Sign up for group therapy sessions.
- B. Discontinue the methadone right away.
- C. Start prenatal care as soon as possible.
- D. Describe genetic testing protocol.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Initiating prenatal care promptly is essential for monitoring the well-being of both the mother and the fetus, particularly in high-risk pregnancies involving substance use. Early prenatal care allows for timely interventions, education, and support to promote a healthier pregnancy and birth outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because while group therapy may be beneficial, initiating prenatal care is more crucial at this stage. Choice B is incorrect as abrupt discontinuation of methadone can be harmful and should be managed under medical supervision. Choice D is incorrect as genetic testing is not the immediate priority in this scenario.
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