Nursing Elites

1. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
• C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
• D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.

2. A client addicted to heroin and newly pregnant asks a nurse about ensuring her baby's health while on methadone. What should the nurse advise?

• A. Sign up for group therapy sessions.
• B. Discontinue the methadone right away.
• C. Start prenatal care as soon as possible.
• D. Describe genetic testing protocol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Initiating prenatal care promptly is essential for monitoring the well-being of both the mother and the fetus, particularly in high-risk pregnancies involving substance use. Early prenatal care allows for timely interventions, education, and support to promote a healthier pregnancy and birth outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because while group therapy may be beneficial, initiating prenatal care is more crucial at this stage. Choice B is incorrect as abrupt discontinuation of methadone can be harmful and should be managed under medical supervision. Choice D is incorrect as genetic testing is not the immediate priority in this scenario.

3. At 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the Emergency Center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. The LPN/LVN obtains a blood sample and initiates an IV. Thirty minutes after admission, the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and shoulder pain. Assessment findings include diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Check the hematocrit results.
• B. Administer pain medication.
• C. Increase the rate of IV fluids.
• D. Monitor the client for contractions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest hypovolemic shock, possibly due to an ectopic pregnancy. Increasing IV fluids is crucial to stabilize the client by improving blood pressure and perfusion. This intervention helps address the underlying issue of hypovolemia and supports the client's hemodynamic status, which takes priority in this emergent situation.

4. Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately.
• B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
• C. Place the woman in a lateral position.
• D. Turn off the continuous epidural.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the woman in a lateral position is the appropriate action to improve venous return and cardiac output, helping to stabilize the blood pressure. This position can alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, reducing the risk of hypotension associated with epidural anesthesia. Turning off the continuous epidural would not be the initial action as it may not be necessary and could lead to inadequate pain relief for the client. Notifying the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately is premature and should be done after attempting non-invasive interventions. Continuing to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes is important, but placing the woman in a lateral position should be the first intervention to address the hypotension.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

• A. Gestational diabetes.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Urinary tract infection.
• D. Swelling in lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

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