HESI RN
Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
- C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
- D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.
2. Which of the following best describes the nurse's responsibility in obtaining informed consent?
- A. The nurse is responsible for ensuring that the patient understands the procedure and has the opportunity to ask questions.
- B. The nurse should ensure that the patient signs the consent form before the procedure begins.
- C. The nurse is responsible for witnessing the patient sign the consent form and documenting the event.
- D. The nurse should delegate the task of obtaining informed consent to another healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider, in this case, the nurse, ensures that the patient understands the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives before they agree to it. The nurse plays a crucial role in facilitating this understanding by explaining the information in a clear and understandable manner and providing the patient with the opportunity to ask questions. Choice B is incorrect because merely obtaining the patient's signature on the consent form does not ensure that the patient truly understands what they are consenting to. Choice C is not fully accurate as the nurse's role goes beyond just witnessing the signature; it involves actively ensuring the patient's comprehension. Choice D is incorrect as the responsibility of obtaining informed consent should not be delegated to another healthcare provider, as it is the nurse's duty to ensure proper communication and understanding with the patient.
3. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?
- A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
- B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
- C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
- D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Jugular vein distention.
- B. Crackles in the lungs.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Hepatomegaly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In right-sided heart failure, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood to the lungs leads to fluid backup in the systemic circulation, resulting in peripheral edema (swelling in lower extremities). While jugular vein distention (A) and hepatomegaly (D) can also occur in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is a hallmark sign due to fluid retention. Crackles in the lungs (B) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs.
5. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice, fatigue, and a distended abdomen. Which laboratory result is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Ammonia level
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Albumin level
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: In clients with cirrhosis, elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which is a serious complication. Monitoring ammonia levels is crucial to assess for changes in mental status and initiate treatment if needed. White blood cell count (choice B) is not the most important parameter to monitor in this scenario as it does not directly relate to the complications of cirrhosis. Albumin level (choice C) and hemoglobin level (choice D) are also important in cirrhosis, but in this case, monitoring ammonia level takes precedence due to its direct association with hepatic encephalopathy.