the lpnlvn is assessing a client who is having a non stress test nst at 41 weeks gestation the nurse determines that the client is not having contract
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.

2. A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client’s nursing care plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep airway equipment at the bedside to manage potential convulsions effectively. This proactive measure is essential to ensure rapid response and intervention in case of convulsions, which can occur in clients with eclampsia.

3. A 38-week primigravida who works at a desk job and sits at a computer for 8 hours each day tells the nurse that her feet have begun to swell. Which instruction would be most effective in preventing pooling of blood in the lower extremities?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During pregnancy, especially in the third trimester, it is common for women to experience swelling due to decreased circulation. Encouraging the patient to move about every hour helps prevent blood pooling in the lower extremities by promoting circulation. This simple activity can help alleviate swelling and discomfort associated with prolonged sitting.

4. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.

5. The client delivered hours ago and has a boggy uterus displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A boggy uterus that is displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus may indicate a full bladder, which can impede uterine contraction and lead to hemorrhage. Encouraging the client to void helps relieve pressure on the uterus, promoting better contraction and preventing postpartum hemorrhage.

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