the lpnlvn is assessing a client who is having a non stress test nst at 41 weeks gestation the nurse determines that the client is not having contract
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Maternity HESI 2023 Quizlet

1. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.

2. The client delivered hours ago and has a boggy uterus displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A boggy uterus that is displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus may indicate a full bladder, which can impede uterine contraction and lead to hemorrhage. Encouraging the client to void helps relieve pressure on the uterus, promoting better contraction and preventing postpartum hemorrhage.

3. A multiparous client with active herpes lesions is admitted to the unit with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Active herpes lesions at the time of delivery increase the risk of neonatal transmission. The most appropriate action in this scenario is to prepare the client for a cesarean section. A cesarean section is often recommended to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission of herpes simplex virus during delivery, especially when active lesions are present. This intervention helps minimize direct contact between the newborn and the infected genital tract secretions, thereby decreasing the risk of transmission.

4. A 36-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery with severe abdominal pain and bright red vaginal bleeding. Her abdomen is rigid and tender to touch. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is 90 beats/minute, and the maternal heart rate is 120 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider from the client's bedside. The clinical presentation of severe abdominal pain, bright red vaginal bleeding, rigid and tender abdomen, along with fetal bradycardia (FHR 90 bpm) and maternal tachycardia (120 bpm) indicates an urgent need for medical intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for immediate assessment and decision-making to address the critical condition and ensure timely and appropriate management for both the mother and fetus.

5. A client who is receiving oxytocin to augment early labor begins to experience tachysystolic tetanic contractions with variable fetal heart decelerations. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences tachysystolic tetanic contractions with variable fetal heart decelerations, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, the priority action is to turn off the oxytocin infusion. This step aims to reduce uterine activity, which can compromise fetal oxygenation and lead to adverse outcomes.

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