Nursing Elites

1. Immediately after birth, a newborn infant is suctioned, dried, and placed under a radiant warmer. The infant has spontaneous respirations, and the nurse assesses an apical heart rate of 80 beats/minute and respirations of 20 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Initiate positive pressure ventilation.
• B. Intervene after the one-minute Apgar assessment.
• C. Initiate CPR on the infant.
• D. Assess the infant's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 100 bpm in a newborn indicates bradycardia and requires intervention. Positive pressure ventilation should be initiated to improve oxygenation and help increase the infant's heart rate. This intervention is crucial to support the newborn's transition to extrauterine life and prevent further complications.

2. Upon admission to the prenatal clinic, a 23-year-old woman informs the nurse that her last menstrual period began on February 15, and that previously her periods were regular. Her pregnancy test is positive. What is this client's expected date of delivery (EDD)?

• A. November 22.
• B. November 8.
• C. December 22.
• D. October 22.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the expected date of delivery (EDD) using Nägele's rule, add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) which is February 15, resulting in February 22. Then, subtract 3 months from February 22, which gives November 22 as the estimated due date.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

• A. Gestational diabetes.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Urinary tract infection.
• D. Swelling in lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

4. In assessing a 9-year-old boy admitted to the hospital with possible acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), what information is most significant to obtain in his history?

• A. Back pain for a few days
• B. A history of hypertension
• C. A sore throat last week
• D. Diuresis during the nights

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A recent sore throat is most significant in this case as it could indicate a preceding streptococcal infection, which is a crucial factor in diagnosing APSGN. Streptococcal infection often precedes APSGN, and recognizing this history is essential for appropriate management and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of APSGN. Back pain and diuresis are symptoms that may not directly correlate with APSGN, while a history of hypertension, although important in general health assessment, is not as specific to the current scenario compared to a recent sore throat.

5. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

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