Nursing Elites

1. What is the term used to describe the gestational sac surrounded by a blood clot and retained in the tube?

• A. A carneous mole.
• B. A hydatidiform mole.
• C. A vesicular mole.
• D. A chorionic mole.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a carneous mole. A carneous mole occurs when a gestational sac is surrounded by a blood clot and retained in the tube. Choice B, a hydatidiform mole, is incorrect as it refers to an abnormal pregnancy characterized by the presence of hydropic chorionic villi. Choice C, a vesicular mole, is also incorrect as it is another term for a complete hydatidiform mole. Choice D, a chorionic mole, is not a recognized medical term and is therefore incorrect.

2. What is the primary use of Bromocriptine?

• A. Relieve constriction ring.
• B. Manage post-partum hemorrhage.
• C. Affect milk production.
• D. Be used in pre-eclampsia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bromocriptine is primarily used to affect milk production. It is a medication commonly prescribed to help suppress lactation, particularly in cases of postpartum breast engorgement or when stopping breastfeeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as Bromocriptine is not indicated for relieving constriction ring, managing post-partum hemorrhage, or treating pre-eclampsia.

3. In which part of the fallopian tube is tubal abortion most common?

• A. Ampullary portion
• B. Isthmus
• C. Interstitial portion
• D. Infundibulum

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tubal abortion is most common when the ovum implants in the interstitial portion of the fallopian tube. This location is the narrowest part of the tube, making it more prone to obstruction or difficulty in the passage of the fertilized ovum. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tubal abortion is more likely to occur in the interstitial portion rather than the ampullary portion, isthmus, or infundibulum of the fallopian tube.

4. What is Diazepam used for?

• A. Management of post-partum hemorrhage.
• B. Management of pre-eclampsia.
• C. Induction of labor.
• D. Relieving anxiety.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diazepam is primarily used for relieving anxiety and muscle spasms. It is a benzodiazepine medication that works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter in the brain to produce a calming effect. While Diazepam is not used for managing post-partum hemorrhage, pre-eclampsia, or inducing labor, it is essential in treating anxiety disorders, muscle spasms, and certain types of seizures. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it aligns with the primary therapeutic use of Diazepam.

5. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

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