the following is true concerning female pelvis
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Reproductive System Exam Quizlet

1. Which statement accurately describes the female pelvis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Platypelloid pelvis indeed has an oval inlet. Gynaecoid pelvis, not mentioned in the choices, has a round inlet. Anthropoid pelvis has a long, narrow oval inlet, which makes choice C incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as the Android pelvis is actually heart-shaped with a narrowed inlet.

2. What causes the changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During puberty, boys experience physical changes such as growth of facial and body hair, deepening of the voice, and muscle development. These changes are primarily driven by the hormone testosterone. Testosterone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics. Therefore, the correct answer is testosterone. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because prolactin, adrenaline, and estrogen do not play a significant role in the development of male secondary sexual characteristics during puberty.

3. Which one of the following is not a stage in the ovarian cycle of the menstrual cycle?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The recruitment of the Graafian follicle is indeed a stage in the ovarian cycle. During the ovarian cycle, the primary follicles are recruited to develop further, leading to the formation of the Graafian follicle. The selection of the dominant follicle, luteal phase, and formation of the corpus luteum are other essential stages in the ovarian cycle. Therefore, option A is not correct as it is a crucial phase in the process of ovulation and fertilization.

4. How do contraceptive oral pills help in birth control?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Contraceptive oral pills primarily work by preventing ovulation, which means Choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect because oral contraceptive pills do not kill ova or sperms. Choice D is incorrect because only preventing ovulation is the primary mechanism of action for oral contraceptive pills.

5. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is best for:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is a highly effective temporary family planning method that is recommended for women who have recently given birth and are breastfeeding. LAM works best when the baby is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and her menstrual periods have not resumed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because LAM is specifically designed for postpartum women with infants less than 6 months old, focusing on the lactational infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding.

Similar Questions

What is the measurement of the breast areola?
Which phase of the menstrual cycle is variable?
What forms the vaginal lining?
What is the content of the acrosome?
Which of the following investigations is done in Pelvic Inflammatory Disease?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses