Nursing Elites

1. How can the need to respect clients' rights to informed consent be attained in quality of care?

• A. by providing adequate information and counseling
• B. by forcing all patients scheduled for surgery to sign the consent form
• C. by engaging the Senior medical superintendent of the hospital to sign consent forms for the patients
• D. by simply telling the patient to sign the consent form

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'by providing adequate information and counseling.' Respecting clients' rights to informed consent involves ensuring that patients are adequately informed about the procedures they will undergo. This includes providing them with all necessary information and counseling to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect because forcing patients to sign consent forms does not ensure that they are fully informed or that their rights are respected. Choice C is incorrect as involving a senior medical superintendent to sign consent forms does not guarantee that patients are adequately informed. Choice D is incorrect because simply telling the patient to sign the consent form does not fulfill the requirement of providing adequate information for informed consent.

2. At what point is a fetus considered viable?

• A. 26 weeks
• B. 28 weeks
• C. 37 weeks
• D. 12 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A fetus is considered viable after 37 weeks of gestation. At this stage, the fetus has a higher chance of surviving outside the womb with medical support. Choice A (26 weeks), Choice B (28 weeks), and Choice D (12 weeks) are incorrect because a fetus is not typically considered viable at those earlier gestational ages.

3. Which of the following is included in a gynecological examination?

• A. Abdominal examination
• B. General and systemic examination
• C. Obstetric exam
• D. Pelvic examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! A gynecological examination typically includes an abdominal examination to assess the overall health of the patient. This includes checking for any abnormalities, tenderness, or masses. General and systemic examinations are also important as they provide valuable information about the patient's overall health status. Pelvic examination is another essential component of a gynecological exam to assess the reproductive organs. Obstetric exams, focusing on pregnant women, are not part of routine gynecological examinations.

4. What is the purpose of hysteroscopy?

• A. View the uterine cavity
• B. Perform a D&C procedure
• C. Remove the fetus
• D. Visualize the fallopian tubes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hysteroscopy is a procedure where a very narrow endoscope is inserted through the cervix to view the uterine cavity. This allows healthcare providers to diagnose and treat various uterine conditions such as polyps, fibroids, and adhesions. Choice B, performing a D&C procedure, involves dilating the cervix and scraping the uterine lining, which is a different procedure. Choice C, removing the fetus, is not the purpose of hysteroscopy and is a procedure done in specific circumstances such as pregnancy termination or miscarriage management. Choice D, visualizing the fallopian tubes, is typically done through a procedure called a hysterosalpingogram, which is different from hysteroscopy.

5. Which statement accurately describes the female pelvis?

• A. Gynaecoid pelvis has a wedge-shaped inlet
• B. Platypelloid pelvis has an oval inlet
• C. Anthropoid pelvis has a long narrow oval inlet
• D. Android pelvis is wedge-shaped

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Platypelloid pelvis indeed has an oval inlet. Gynaecoid pelvis, not mentioned in the choices, has a round inlet. Anthropoid pelvis has a long, narrow oval inlet, which makes choice C incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as the Android pelvis is actually heart-shaped with a narrowed inlet.

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