HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. How can the need to respect clients' rights to informed consent be attained in quality of care?
- A. by providing adequate information and counseling
- B. by forcing all patients scheduled for surgery to sign the consent form
- C. by engaging the Senior medical superintendent of the hospital to sign consent forms for the patients
- D. by simply telling the patient to sign the consent form
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'by providing adequate information and counseling.' Respecting clients' rights to informed consent involves ensuring that patients are adequately informed about the procedures they will undergo. This includes providing them with all necessary information and counseling to make an informed decision. Choice B is incorrect because forcing patients to sign consent forms does not ensure that they are fully informed or that their rights are respected. Choice C is incorrect as involving a senior medical superintendent to sign consent forms does not guarantee that patients are adequately informed. Choice D is incorrect because simply telling the patient to sign the consent form does not fulfill the requirement of providing adequate information for informed consent.
2. The nurse is conducting a process evaluation of a prevention education program for older adults who are at risk for substance abuse. Which data source provides the information the nurse needs to conduct this process evaluation?
- A. client's score on an alcohol screening instrument
- B. results of a urine drug and alcohol screen
- C. most recent community census data
- D. documentation of client education in the nursing record
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Documentation of client education in the nursing record provides information on the implementation and progress of the educational program, which is crucial for evaluating its process. Choices A and B focus on individual client assessment rather than program evaluation. Choice C, community census data, is not directly related to evaluating the process of the prevention education program for older adults at risk for substance abuse.
3. The client with type 2 DM is learning to manage blood glucose levels. When should the client monitor blood glucose?
- A. Only when feeling unwell.
- B. Only before meals.
- C. Before meals and at bedtime.
- D. Only after meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows the client to assess fasting levels and make informed decisions about mealtime insulin or medication doses. Monitoring only when feeling unwell (choice A) is not sufficient for proper glucose management as it may miss important trends. Monitoring only before meals (choice B) is helpful but does not provide a complete picture of the client's glucose control throughout the day. Monitoring only after meals (choice D) is less beneficial than monitoring before meals as it does not capture fasting levels. Therefore, monitoring before meals and at bedtime (choice C) is the most comprehensive approach to maintain good glucose control and prevent complications.
4. A healthcare professional reviews a client’s laboratory results. Which results from the client’s urinalysis should the healthcare professional identify as normal? (Select all that apply.)
- A. pH: 6
- B. Specific gravity: 1.015
- C. Glucose: negative
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a urinalysis, a pH of 6 is within the normal range (typically between 4.6 and 8); a specific gravity of 1.015 is considered normal (usually ranging between 1.005 to 1.030); and a negative glucose result is also normal. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are correct as they fall within the normal values for a urinalysis. Choices A, B, and C are the correct answers, as the pH, specific gravity, and glucose levels are within the normal range for a urinalysis. Choice D is correct because all the listed values are normal. Choices A, B, and C are the correct options as they meet the criteria for normal urinalysis values. The other choices do not fall within the normal range for a urinalysis.
5. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen 50 mg/dl
- B. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl
- C. Venous blood pH 7.30
- D. Serum potassium 6 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.