HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?
- A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
- B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
- C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
- D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.
2. A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse?
- A. A client with a Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes
- B. A client with a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias
- C. A client with a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress
- D. A client with a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, it is more appropriate to assign a stable client, such as the one with a myocardial infarction who is free from pain and dysrhythmias, to a nurse who lacks specialized critical care experience. This client's condition is relatively stable and does not require immediate critical interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve clients with more complex and critical conditions that would be better managed by a nurse with specialized critical care training. Choice A involves a client on a Dopamine drip with frequent vital sign monitoring, Choice C has a client with a tracheotomy in respiratory distress, and Choice D describes a client with a pacemaker experiencing intermittent capture, all of which require a higher level of critical care expertise.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assess the client for signs of infection.
- D. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit.' When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin, the nurse's priority action is to monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring these lab values helps evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin in treating anemia. Monitoring the client's blood pressure (choice B) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client for signs of infection (choice C) is important but not the priority related to the prescription of erythropoietin. Monitoring the client for signs of bleeding (choice D) is relevant but not the priority action when erythropoietin is prescribed.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with rheumatoid arthritis who is taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. White blood cell count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client with rheumatoid arthritis is taking NSAIDs, the nurse should monitor serum creatinine levels. NSAIDs can potentially cause kidney damage, so monitoring creatinine levels helps assess for renal impairment. While monitoring hemoglobin, potassium, and white blood cell count may also be relevant in some cases, serum creatinine is the priority due to the risk of renal complications associated with NSAID use.
5. A client is being prepared for surgery and has been placed on NPO status. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Assess the client's understanding of the procedure
- B. Monitor the client's compliance with NPO status
- C. Check the client's vital signs
- D. Ensure the client's consent form is signed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring the client's compliance with NPO status is the priority assessment. Ensuring the client remains NPO (nothing by mouth) is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure is important but not the priority at this moment. Checking vital signs is also essential but ensuring NPO status takes precedence for patient safety. Ensuring the client's consent form is signed is necessary but not the priority assessment compared to maintaining NPO status.
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