Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?

• A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
• B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
• C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
• D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.

2. A young adult visits the clinic reporting symptoms associated with gastritis. Which information in the client's history is most important for the nurse to address in the teaching plan?

• A. Experiences occasional heartburn after eating spicy food
• B. Consumes 10 or more drinks of alcohol every weekend
• C. Reports frequent use of NSAIDs
• D. Has a history of peptic ulcers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive alcohol consumption is a major risk factor for gastritis and should be prioritized in the teaching plan. While spicy foods and NSAIDs can contribute to gastritis, alcohol consumption is the most significant factor that needs immediate lifestyle changes to prevent worsening of gastritis symptoms. Peptic ulcers, although relevant, are not as directly linked to exacerbating gastritis symptoms as alcohol consumption.

3. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
• B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
• C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
• D. It will indicate the need to institute antiparkinsonian drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: Monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is crucial because orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, increasing the risk of falls and related injuries. Therefore, regular blood pressure monitoring helps healthcare providers detect and manage this potential side effect. Incorrect Choices Rationale: - Choice B is incorrect because while antipsychotic drugs can have various side effects, causing elevated blood pressure is not a common effect associated with them. - Choice C is unrelated to blood pressure monitoring in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs. Monitoring blood pressure in this context aims to detect and manage side effects of the medication, not to assess sodium intake. - Choice D is incorrect as monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is primarily aimed at detecting orthostatic hypotension, not as an indicator for instituting antiparkinsonian drugs.

4. A client has suspected compartment syndrome of the right lower leg. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Elevate the right leg to reduce swelling.
• B. Loosen any restrictive dressings on the leg.
• C. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.
• D. Administer pain medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a suspected case of compartment syndrome, the nurse's priority intervention is to loosen any restrictive dressings on the leg. This action helps to relieve pressure within the affected compartment, improve circulation, and prevent permanent damage. Elevating the leg may further increase pressure, preparing for emergency surgery is premature without proper assessment and diagnosis, and administering pain medication should come after addressing the primary issue of relieving pressure.

5. A client presents to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation of asthma. The nurse notes that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe and has an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Administer a bronchodilator
• D. Administer oxygen therapy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first priority in an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygen saturation. In this scenario, the client has a low oxygen saturation level of 86%, indicating hypoxemia, which can be life-threatening. Administering oxygen therapy will help improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Once the oxygen levels are stabilized, further interventions such as bronchodilators can be implemented. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position may also be beneficial, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence in this critical situation. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important for asthma management but is not the first intervention needed in a client with severe hypoxemia.

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