Nursing Elites

1. The community health nurse believes that immunization rates in a lower socioeconomic section of the city are probably below the target set by the state health department. What action should the nurse take first to intervene with this health problem?

• A. join a political action group that focuses attention on the issue in the local news media
• B. partner with a local children's hospital in setting up free 'shot' clinics in the neighborhood
• C. review current epidemiological population data that might document a low immunization rate
• D. call a meeting of citizens to inform them of the importance of having their children immunized

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate initial action for the community health nurse to take when addressing low immunization rates in a lower socioeconomic area is to review current epidemiological data. By reviewing this data, the nurse can gather evidence that documents the low immunization rate in the community. This information is crucial to support the need for targeted interventions to increase immunization rates. Choices A, B, and D involve actions that may be important at later stages of intervention but are not the first step. Joining a political action group, partnering with a hospital for clinics, or holding a community meeting are all valuable strategies, but they should be based on evidence obtained from reviewing epidemiological data to ensure targeted and effective interventions.

2. A homeless client with alcohol dependency will be dismissed from the emergency department in 24 hours. The nurse notes that a tuberculin skin test was prescribed by the healthcare provider. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement prior to discharge?

• A. Identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read
• B. Give the client written information about the tuberculosis test
• C. Determine if the client understands the purpose of the tuberculin test
• D. Explain to the client results should be read between 48 and 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement prior to the discharge of a homeless client with alcohol dependency who had a tuberculin skin test prescribed is to identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read. This is crucial to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. Providing written information (Choice B) is helpful but not as critical as ensuring the follow-up plan. Determining if the client understands the purpose of the test (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as ensuring the follow-up plan. Explaining when the results should be read (Choice D) is important, but the priority is to make sure the client has a plan in place for follow-up.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum calcium of 11 mg/dL.
• B. Serum phosphorus of 3 mg/dL.
• C. Serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL.
• D. Serum albumin of 4 g/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 11 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia, which can be a complication of hyperparathyroidism and requires immediate intervention. Hypercalcemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias, renal failure, and neurologic symptoms. Monitoring and managing serum calcium levels are crucial in clients with hyperparathyroidism. Serum phosphorus, magnesium, and albumin levels are important to assess in clients with hyperparathyroidism, but they do not require immediate intervention as hypercalcemia poses a more urgent risk.

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