Nursing Elites

1. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

• A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
• B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
• D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

2. The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The nurse assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that which side effect is specifically associated with this medication?

• A. Alopecia
• B. Chest pain
• C. Pulmonary fibrosis
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Orthostatic hypotension.' Etoposide is associated with orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure that can occur when transitioning from lying down to standing up. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's blood pressure during the infusion to detect and manage this potential side effect.

3. While assisting in caring for a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management, a nurse notes the client's absent deep tendon reflexes. What determination should the nurse make based on this data?

• A. The magnesium sulfate is effective.
• B. The infusion rate needs to be increased.
• C. The client is experiencing cerebral edema.
• D. The client is experiencing magnesium toxicity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a pregnant client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia management exhibits absent deep tendon reflexes, this indicates magnesium toxicity. Magnesium toxicity can occur as a complication of magnesium sulfate therapy, leading to suppressed reflexes. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this sign promptly and report it to prevent further complications or harm to the client.

4. A client who has been taking isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis asks the nurse about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should limit my alcohol intake.
• B. I should notify my doctor if I notice a yellowish skin color.
• C. I should take the medication with an empty stomach.
• D. I should notify my doctor if I experience numbness and tingling in my extremities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Isoniazid (INH) is best absorbed when taken on an empty stomach. However, if gastrointestinal upset occurs, it can be taken with food. Limiting alcohol intake, monitoring for jaundice, and notifying the doctor of peripheral neuropathy symptoms are all appropriate actions while taking INH.

5. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse reinforces to the client:

• A. To take the medication after meals
• B. To take the medication before meals
• C. To discontinue the medication if a headache occurs
• D. That a reddish-orange discoloration of the urine may occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client that a reddish-orange discoloration of urine may occur. The nurse should also educate the client that this discoloration can stain fabric. It is recommended to take the medication after meals to reduce the possibility of gastrointestinal upset. While a headache is an occasional side effect of the medication, it does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.

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