nalidixic acid neggram is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection on review of the clients record the nurse notes that the client is ta
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam

1. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

2. Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) is prescribed for a client with neurogenic bladder. Which sign would indicate a possible toxic effect related to this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of toxicity related to oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) include central nervous system excitation, such as nervousness, restlessness, hallucinations, and irritability. Other signs of toxicity may include hypotension or hypertension, confusion, tachycardia, a flushed or red face, and signs of respiratory depression. Restlessness is a sign of central nervous system excitation, which can indicate a possible toxic effect of this medication.

3. A client is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl) for a trichomoniasis infection. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Metronidazole (Flagyl) can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when taken with alcohol, resulting in severe nausea, vomiting, and headache. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid alcohol while taking this medication to prevent adverse effects. Avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent these reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. The other options are not directly related to the specific medication or the condition being treated.

4. A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic, and the healthcare provider prescribes isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the healthcare provider if the client is taking which medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A, which can lead to toxicity when taken together. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid concurrent use of vitamin A supplements with isotretinoin. Contacting the healthcare provider to discuss discontinuing vitamin A supplements is important to prevent potential adverse effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not known to interact significantly with isotretinoin.

5. A client with hyperlipidemia is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the teaching plan is to advise the client to avoid consuming grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can increase the risk of atorvastatin (Lipitor) toxicity by inhibiting its metabolism. Atorvastatin is typically taken in the evening as cholesterol synthesis occurs at night. Increasing dairy intake is not specifically recommended for atorvastatin therapy, and the medication can be taken with or without food.

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