HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?
- A. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin)
- B. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- C. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage
- D. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.
2. A client is learning how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which action, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. Withdraws the NPH insulin first
- B. Withdraws the regular insulin first
- C. Injects air into the NPH insulin vial first
- D. Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When mixing regular insulin with another insulin preparation, it is crucial to withdraw the regular insulin first to prevent contamination. NPH insulin should be drawn after the regular insulin to maintain the integrity of each insulin type. Therefore, if the client withdraws the NPH insulin first, it indicates the need for further teaching. Choice B is correct as withdrawing regular insulin first is the appropriate step. Choice C is incorrect as air should be injected into the vial containing the regular insulin to maintain pressure. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial is a correct step in preparing the insulin for withdrawal.
3. A client is receiving sulfisoxazole. Which of the following should be included in the list of instructions?
- A. Restrict fluid intake.
- B. Maintain a high fluid intake.
- C. If the urine turns dark brown, call the healthcare provider (HCP) immediately.
- D. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is taking sulfisoxazole, it is important to maintain a high fluid intake. Each dose of sulfisoxazole should be taken with a full glass of water, as the medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. Restricting fluid intake is not recommended as it can lead to inadequate hydration. Dark brown urine may be a side effect of some forms of sulfisoxazole but does not necessarily warrant immediate notification of the healthcare provider unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. Decreasing the dosage when symptoms improve is not advised as it may lead to treatment failure or the development of resistance.
4. A client is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for the treatment of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- C. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. Take the medication with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning. It should be taken at least 30 minutes before any food, beverage, or other medication. The client should also remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to prevent esophageal irritation. Taking alendronate at bedtime or with food is not recommended as it may reduce its absorption and effectiveness.
5. Before administering Methylergonovine (Methergine) to a client with postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony, the nurse checks which of the following as the important client parameter?
- A. Temperature
- B. Lochial flow
- C. Urine output
- D. Blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Methylergonovine (Methergine) acts by stimulating uterine contractions and causing vasoconstriction. As vasoconstriction can potentially impact blood pressure, it is crucial to check the client's blood pressure before administering Methylergonovine to monitor for any hypertensive effects.
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