Nursing Elites

1. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?

• A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
• B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
• C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
• D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.

2. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

3. A client with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide 40 mg BID. The pharmacy provides 20 mg tablets. How many tablets should the client receive each day? [Enter numeric value only]

• A. 4 tablets
• B. 3 tablets
• C. 2 tablets
• D. 1 tablet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the total daily dose of furosemide needed, 40 mg BID (twice a day) is 80 mg/day. Since each tablet is 20 mg, the client should receive a total of 4 tablets per day (80 mg ÷ 20 mg per tablet = 4 tablets). Therefore, the correct answer is 4 tablets. Choice B (3 tablets) is incorrect because it does not provide the correct total daily dose. Choice C (2 tablets) is incorrect as it would not meet the required dose of 80 mg/day. Choice D (1 tablet) is incorrect as it would be insufficient to achieve the prescribed daily dose.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?

• A. Monitor daily weights
• B. Assess skin turgor
• C. Evaluate blood pressure trends
• D. Check urine specific gravity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.

5. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Give analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule for pain management.
• B. Administer analgesic medication only when the pain becomes severe.
• C. Provide medication to keep the client comfortable without inducing sedation.
• D. Allow brief medication-free periods to promote comfort during daily activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.

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