Nursing Elites

1. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?

• A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
• B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
• C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
• D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.

2. The nurse is preparing a client for surgery. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Ensure that the client signs the consent form.
• B. Review the client's allergies with the surgical team.
• C. Confirm the client's identity using two identifiers.
• D. Verify that the surgical site is marked.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ensuring that the client signs the consent form (A) is the most crucial action before surgery. The consent form is legally and ethically necessary for the procedure to proceed. While reviewing allergies (B), confirming identity (C), and verifying the surgical site (D) are essential steps, obtaining the client's informed consent takes precedence to protect the client's rights and ensure a safe surgical experience.

3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position prior to administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?

• A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg.
• B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap.
• C. Reposition the client in the Sims' position.
• D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct position for administering a soap suds enema is the Sims' position, not the left lateral position. The Sims' position allows the enema solution to follow the anatomical course of the intestines and provides the best overall results. By repositioning the client in the Sims' position, the weight is distributed to the anterior ilium, facilitating the enema administration process.

4. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

Similar Questions