HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam
1. The census on the unit is 90 percent, and there are no private rooms available. An elderly client with influenza is admitted. Which of the following rooms would it be appropriate to assign this client?
- A. A double room with a client admitted for impetigo.
- B. A double room with another client with the same diagnosis.
- C. A four-bed room with three clients who have had orthopedic surgery.
- D. A double room with an elderly client with a diagnosis of chickenpox.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a private room is not an option, the best choice is to assign the elderly client with influenza to a double room with another client diagnosed with the same condition. This is ideal as droplet precautions would likely already be in place for the other client, reducing the risk of spreading the infection to other clients in the unit. Choice A is not appropriate as impetigo does not require the same precautions as influenza. Choice C is not ideal as orthopedic surgery does not involve respiratory precautions. Choice D is incorrect because chickenpox requires airborne precautions, which could pose a risk to the elderly client with influenza.
2. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
- B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
- C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
- D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important action is to ensure that an accurate BP reading is obtained. The nurse should reassess the blood pressure with the correct size cuff (B) to obtain an accurate reading. Postponing reassessment (A) could lead to inaccurate results. While (C and D) are important actions for education and quality improvement, they are not as critical as obtaining an accurate blood pressure reading in this situation.
3. The healthcare provider assesses a 2-year-old who is admitted for dehydration and finds that the peripheral IV rate by gravity has slowed, even though the venous access site is healthy. What should the healthcare provider do next?
- A. Apply a warm compress proximal to the site.
- B. Check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole.
- C. Adjust the tape that stabilizes the needle.
- D. Flush with normal saline and recount the drop rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the appropriate next step for the healthcare provider is to check for kinks in the tubing and raise the IV pole. These issues can commonly cause a slowed IV rate. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) may not address the underlying problem of kinked tubing or incorrect IV pole height. Adjusting the tape that stabilizes the needle (Choice C) is important for securement but is not the priority in this situation. Flushing with normal saline and recounting the drop rate (Choice D) should only be done after ruling out mechanical issues like kinks in the tubing.
4. The healthcare professional counts an adult's apical heartbeat at 110 beats per minute. The healthcare professional describes this as:
- A. Asystole
- B. Bigeminy
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tachycardia is a heart rate greater than 100 beats per minute. In this case, an adult's heart rate of 110 beats per minute falls within the range of tachycardia. Tachycardia can be a common physiological response to various stresses on the body, leading to an increased heart rate. Asystole refers to the absence of cardiac activity, bigeminy is a specific heart rhythm pattern, and bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.
5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client with a diagnosis of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which assessment finding is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Dependent rubor.
- B. Absence of hair on the lower legs.
- C. Shiny, thin skin on the legs.
- D. Pain in the legs when walking.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Pain in the legs when walking (D), known as intermittent claudication, is most indicative of peripheral arterial disease (PAD). While dependent rubor (A), absence of hair (B), and shiny, thin skin (C) are also associated with PAD, they are less specific than intermittent claudication. Intermittent claudication is a hallmark symptom of PAD caused by inadequate blood flow to the legs during exercise, resulting in pain that resolves with rest.
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