HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. Respect in reproductive health care involves:
- A. Talking to patients politely and managing their care compassionately and non-judgmentally.
- B. Ensuring that all patients sign a consent form.
- C. Ignoring patient requests for privacy.
- D. Disregarding patient concerns during care.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Respect in reproductive health care entails treating patients with politeness, compassion, and without judgment. Choice A is the correct answer as it aligns with the principles of respect and patient-centered care. It is essential to communicate respectfully, show compassion, and address patients' needs without passing judgment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ensuring consent through a form is important but not the sole aspect of respect. Ignoring patient requests for privacy goes against patient rights, and disregarding patient concerns is contrary to providing comprehensive care.
2. How many autosomes does a human primary spermatocyte have?
- A. 34
- B. 44
- C. 54
- D. 33
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A human primary spermatocyte has 44 autosomes. Autosomes are chromosomes that are not involved in determining an individual's sex. In humans, there are a total of 46 chromosomes in a somatic cell, with 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of sex chromosomes. Therefore, the correct answer is 44 autosomes, making choice B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the accurate number of autosomes in a human primary spermatocyte.
3. What laboratory values are not typically elevated in a patient with PCOS?
- A. LH
- B. Androgens
- C. Estrogens
- D. Prolactin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolactin. Prolactin levels are not typically elevated in patients with PCOS. Elevated LH and androgens are commonly seen in PCOS patients. While estrogen levels can vary in PCOS, they are not consistently low or high in all cases.
4. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?
- A. Cervical excitation test
- B. Chadwick sign
- C. Jacquiners sign
- D. Palmers sign
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.
5. Which part of the female reproductive system remains blocked after tubectomy?
- A. Fallopian tube
- B. Cervix
- C. Uterine cavity
- D. None
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After a tubectomy procedure, the Fallopian tube remains blocked. This is the correct answer because tubectomy involves the surgical blocking or sealing of the Fallopian tubes to prevent eggs from reaching the uterus, thus preventing pregnancy. Choice B, the cervix, is incorrect as it is not blocked during a tubectomy. Choice C, the uterine cavity, is also incorrect as the procedure does not involve blocking this part of the reproductive system. Choice D, none, is incorrect as the purpose of tubectomy is to block the Fallopian tubes.
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