HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Carrots
- B. White bread
- C. Bananas
- D. Apples
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium and should be avoided in clients who are on a low-potassium diet due to chronic kidney disease. Foods like apples and white bread are low in potassium and are safer choices. Carrots are also low in potassium and do not need to be avoided in this case.
2. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively following an appendectomy. The nurse should intervene for which abnormal finding?
- A. Heart rate of 88 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 100/60
- C. Oxygen saturation of 94%
- D. Respiratory rate of 16
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% indicate hypoxia and require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 88 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60, and a respiratory rate of 16 are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation is a critical parameter reflecting the client's oxygenation status.
3. A client with Parkinson's disease is prescribed levodopa/carbidopa. The nurse instructs the client to take the medication with meals. Which rationale should the nurse provide for taking the medication with food?
- A. It enhances the effectiveness of the medication
- B. It helps to improve absorption
- C. It prevents orthostatic hypotension
- D. It reduces gastrointestinal upset
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'It reduces gastrointestinal upset.' Levodopa/carbidopa can cause nausea and other gastrointestinal side effects. Taking the medication with food can help reduce these side effects and improve the client's comfort. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because taking the medication with food does not primarily enhance effectiveness, improve absorption, or prevent orthostatic hypotension. The main reason for advising to take the medication with meals is to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
4. The nurse is providing care for a client with heart failure who is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Calcium level
- B. Sodium level
- C. Magnesium level
- D. Potassium level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. While calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are important in various conditions and treatments, they are not the primary electrolyte affected by furosemide.
5. A female client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is sedated and on a ventilator with 50% FIO2. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?
- A. Assess the client’s lung sounds bilaterally.
- B. Diminished left lower lobe sounds.
- C. Monitor ventilator settings for changes in oxygen levels.
- D. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diminished breath sounds in a sedated client with ARDS and on a ventilator indicate collapsed alveoli, which requires immediate intervention, such as chest tube insertion, to prevent further lung damage. Assessing bilateral lung sounds (Choice A) is important but not as urgent as identifying diminished sounds in a specific location. Monitoring ventilator settings (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the immediate need for intervention due to diminished breath sounds. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath (Choice D) may indicate other issues but are not specific to the urgency of addressing diminished breath sounds in ARDS.
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