a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low potassium diet which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium and should be avoided in clients who are on a low-potassium diet due to chronic kidney disease. Foods like apples and white bread are low in potassium and are safer choices. Carrots are also low in potassium and do not need to be avoided in this case.

2. Following discharge teaching, a male client with a duodenal ulcer tells the nurse that he will drink plenty of dairy products, such as milk, to help coat and protect his ulcer. What is the best follow-up action by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should be advised to avoid foods rich in milk and cream. Although they provide temporary relief, dairy products, especially milk, stimulate gastric acid secretion, which can exacerbate the symptoms of a duodenal ulcer. Encouraging the client to drink milk (Choice A) would be counterproductive and could worsen the condition. Instructing the client to take antacids (Choice C) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the root cause of the issue. Advising the client to monitor their symptoms (Choice D) is vague and does not provide specific guidance on managing the duodenal ulcer. Therefore, the best action is to review with the client the need to avoid foods rich in milk and cream to ensure proper ulcer management.

3. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of isoproterenol in D5W at 300 mcg/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse set the pump to?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct infusion rate, convert 300 mcg/hour to mg/hour (300 mcg = 0.3 mg). Since the IV solution is 1 mg in 250 ml, the rate is calculated as 0.3 mg/hour = 75 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should set the pump to 75 ml/hour. Choice A (100 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choice C (60 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is lower than the correct rate. Choice D (125 ml/hour) is incorrect as it is higher than the correct rate.

5. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.

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