HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. What is required for privacy in reproductive health services?
- A. Covering windows and placing partitions between examination areas.
- B. Placing examination tables so that women will be exposed during exams.
- C. Allowing healthcare staff to discuss patients openly in the clinic.
- D. Forcing patients to undergo procedures without proper explanation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Privacy in reproductive health services necessitates maintaining confidentiality and creating a private environment for patients. This includes covering windows and using partitions between examination areas to protect the patient's privacy. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests exposing women during exams, which violates privacy. Choice C is incorrect because discussing patients openly breaches confidentiality. Choice D is incorrect as it goes against informed consent and proper communication, which are essential components of respecting patient autonomy and privacy.
2. A client is being treated for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Increased appetite
- C. Insomnia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Insomnia. Insomnia is a common side effect of SSRIs, including those used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Educating the client about potential side effects like insomnia is crucial for managing expectations and promoting treatment adherence. Weight loss (choice A) is less common with SSRIs and might not be a primary concern for a client with GAD. Increased appetite (choice B) is also less likely with SSRIs. Dry mouth (choice D) is a side effect more commonly associated with other classes of medications, such as anticholinergics, rather than SSRIs.
3. A client was admitted for a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock 2 days ago. Which laboratory test result should a nurse expect to find?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 52 mg/dL
- B. Creatinine of 2.3 mg/dL
- C. BUN of 10 mg/dL
- D. BUN/creatinine ratio of 8:1
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, decreased renal perfusion leads to an elevated BUN. Choice A is correct. Creatinine remains normal in cardiogenic shock as it signifies kidney damage, which has not occurred in this case. A low BUN indicates overhydration, malnutrition, or liver damage, which are not typically seen in cardiogenic shock. A low BUN/creatinine ratio is associated with fluid volume excess or acute renal tubular acidosis, not specifically indicative of cardiogenic shock.
4. During which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes gather on either side of the separating cell?
- A. Metaphase
- B. Telophase
- C. Anaphase
- D. Prophase
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Telophase. During telophase, the chromosomes gather at opposite poles of the cell as the nuclear envelopes start to form around them, indicating the end of cell division. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because during metaphase, the chromosomes align in the middle of the cell; in anaphase, the chromosomes separate and move towards opposite poles; and in prophase, the chromosomes condense and the nuclear envelope breaks down, respectively.
5. A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a nephrectomy secondary to kidney trauma. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?
- A. Since you only have one kidney, a salt and fluid restriction is required.
- B. Your therapy will include hemodialysis while you recover.
- C. Medication will be prescribed to control your high blood pressure.
- D. You need to avoid participating in contact sports like football.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients with one kidney need to avoid contact sports because the kidneys are easily injured. The client will not be required to restrict salt and fluids, end up on dialysis, or have new hypertension because of the nephrectomy.