oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6 year old child with iron deficiency anemia the nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with whi
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which of the following food items?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Iron absorption is enhanced by the presence of vitamin C. Orange juice is a good source of vitamin C, which can improve the absorption of iron when taken together. Therefore, administering iron supplements with orange juice is the best choice to optimize iron absorption for the child.

2. A client who received a kidney transplant is taking azathioprine (Imuran), and the nurse provides instructions about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant taken for life. Discontinuing the medication after 14 days is incorrect.

3. A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to teach the client to:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is on isoniazid (INH) therapy, they should be instructed to report any signs of hepatitis, such as yellowing of the eyes or skin, immediately. Alcohol consumption should be avoided during INH therapy due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. Foods high in tyramine, such as Swiss or aged cheeses, should also be avoided to prevent adverse reactions. Additionally, while on INH therapy, it is essential to avoid vitamin supplements containing pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to prevent potential interactions.

4. Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma proteins. When an oral anticoagulant, like warfarin sodium (Coumadin), is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be necessary to avoid excessive anticoagulation and potential bleeding risks. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to anticipate in this situation is a decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage. Choice A is incorrect because discontinuing warfarin sodium abruptly can lead to thrombosis or embolism. Choice C is incorrect as increasing the warfarin sodium dosage can potentiate the anticoagulant effect, leading to bleeding complications. Choice D is incorrect as reducing the dose of nalidixic acid would not directly address the interaction with warfarin sodium.

5. A client has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix), and the nurse is monitoring for adverse effects associated with this medication. Which of the following should the nurse recognize as a potential adverse effect? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to adverse effects such as tinnitus, hypotension, and hypokalemia. While nausea is a common side effect of many medications, it is not typically associated with furosemide. Therefore, the nurse should recognize nausea as a potential adverse effect that doesn't apply to furosemide.

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