Nursing Elites

1. A client with a prescription to take theophylline (Theo-24) daily has been given medication instructions by the nurse. The nurse determines that the client needs further information about the medication if the client states that he or she will:

• A. Drink at least 2 L of fluid per day.
• B. Take the daily dose at bedtime.
• C. Avoid changing brands of the medication without health care provider (HCP) approval.
• D. Avoid over-the-counter (OTC) cough and cold medications unless approved by the HCP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking theophylline at bedtime is inappropriate because it can cause insomnia. The medication should be taken early in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep patterns. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of the medication to achieve optimal therapeutic effects.

2. A client is prescribed calcium gluconate after thyroidectomy. The medication is most likely prescribed to:

• A. Treat thyroid storm.
• B. Prevent cardiac irritability.
• C. Treat hypocalcemic tetany.
• D. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a thyroidectomy, the parathyroid glands can be inadvertently removed or damaged, leading to a decrease in calcium levels and potentially causing hypocalcemic tetany. Calcium gluconate is given to supplement calcium levels and prevent or treat hypocalcemia-related symptoms, such as muscle spasms and tetany.

3. A healthcare provider has written a prescription for ranitidine (Zantac), once daily. When should the nurse schedule the medication?

• A. At bedtime
• B. After lunch
• C. With supper
• D. Before breakfast

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: At bedtime. Ranitidine should be scheduled at bedtime because it provides a prolonged effect and offers the greatest protection of the gastric mucosa. Administering it at this time helps in managing nocturnal acid breakthrough and providing relief during the night.

4. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

5. A healthcare professional is planning to administer amlodipine (Norvasc) to a client. The healthcare professional plans to check which of the following before giving the medication?

• A. Respiratory rate
• B. Blood pressure and heart rate
• C. Heart rate and respiratory rate
• D. Level of consciousness and blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering amlodipine, it is important to check the client's blood pressure and heart rate. Amlodipine is known to lower blood pressure and heart rate as part of its mechanism of action. Monitoring these vital signs helps ensure the safety of the client and allows for appropriate assessment of the medication's effects post-administration.

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