Nursing Elites

1. A client with a prescription to take theophylline (Theo-24) daily has been given medication instructions by the nurse. The nurse determines that the client needs further information about the medication if the client states that he or she will:

• A. Drink at least 2 L of fluid per day.
• B. Take the daily dose at bedtime.
• C. Avoid changing brands of the medication without health care provider (HCP) approval.
• D. Avoid over-the-counter (OTC) cough and cold medications unless approved by the HCP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking theophylline at bedtime is inappropriate because it can cause insomnia. The medication should be taken early in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep patterns. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of the medication to achieve optimal therapeutic effects.

2. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?

• A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
• B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
• C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
• D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B. Which of the following should prompt the healthcare professional to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Fever
• B. Headache
• C. Nausea
• D. Oliguria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to kidney damage. Oliguria, which is decreased urine output, is a concerning sign of kidney dysfunction and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Fever, headache, and nausea are common side effects of amphotericin B but are not as critical as oliguria in indicating potential kidney damage.

4. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:

• A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
• B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
• C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
• D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.

5. A client with hyperlipidemia is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication in the evening.
• B. Report any muscle pain to your healthcare provider.
• C. Avoid increasing your intake of grapefruit juice.
• D. Do not take the medication with a high-fat meal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain can be a sign of a serious side effect of simvastatin (Zocor) known as rhabdomyolysis and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. The medication is usually taken in the evening to coincide with the body's natural production of cholesterol. Grapefruit juice should be avoided as it can increase the risk of toxicity by affecting the metabolism of the medication. Additionally, taking simvastatin with a high-fat meal can reduce its effectiveness, so it should be taken without food or with a light meal.

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