Nursing Elites

1. A client with a prescription to take theophylline (Theo-24) daily has been given medication instructions by the nurse. The nurse determines that the client needs further information about the medication if the client states that he or she will:

• A. Drink at least 2 L of fluid per day.
• B. Take the daily dose at bedtime.
• C. Avoid changing brands of the medication without health care provider (HCP) approval.
• D. Avoid over-the-counter (OTC) cough and cold medications unless approved by the HCP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking theophylline at bedtime is inappropriate because it can cause insomnia. The medication should be taken early in the morning to avoid disrupting sleep patterns. It is important to follow the healthcare provider's instructions regarding the timing of the medication to achieve optimal therapeutic effects.

2. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psychomotor seizures. The nurse reviews the client's health history, knowing that this medication is contraindicated if which of the following disorders is present?

• A. Headaches
• B. Liver disease
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is contraindicated in liver disease due to its potential to cause hepatic toxicity. Regular monitoring of liver function tests is necessary when using this medication to detect any signs of liver damage.

3. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

4. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which medication should be prepared to administer as prescribed to the client?

• A. Calcium chloride
• B. Calcium gluconate
• C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
• D. Large doses of vitamin D

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The normal serum calcium level ranges from 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. In hypercalcemia, as seen in this client, Calcitonin (Miacalcin) is used to decrease plasma calcium levels by inhibiting bone resorption. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are typically used for hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia. Large doses of vitamin D should be avoided in hypercalcemia as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia by increasing calcium absorption from the intestines.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client. Before administering the medication, the healthcare provider should:

• A. Measure the client's blood pressure.
• B. Check the client's heart rate.
• C. Assess the client's respiratory rate.
• D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin), the healthcare provider should check the client's heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate is crucial because if it is below 60 beats per minute, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider must be informed. While blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are essential assessments, they are not the primary focus before administering digoxin.

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