Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager has detected a potential problem with staffing and has asked staff members for their thoughts on the matter. Which of the following best describes the informational activity this manager is engaging in?

• A. Spokesperson
• B. Reporting
• C. Monitoring
• D. Job analysis and redesign

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitoring.' Monitoring involves regularly checking and observing the status of a unit or situation. In this scenario, the nurse manager is actively seeking feedback from staff members to assess and keep track of the staffing situation. Choice A, 'Spokesperson,' refers to a role where someone represents or speaks on behalf of a group or organization, which is not the primary activity in this case. Choice B, 'Reporting,' typically involves presenting information or data about a specific topic or issue but does not capture the ongoing observation and assessment aspect seen in monitoring. Choice D, 'Job analysis and redesign,' involves assessing and restructuring job roles, responsibilities, and tasks, which is not directly related to the action of monitoring staffing levels.

2. Why have recent polls placed nursing as one of the most trusted professions?

• A. Nurses engage in lifelong learning.
• B. Nurses abide by a dress code.
• C. Nurses have the skills needed to care for diverse populations.
• D. Nurses must pass the NCLEX in order to obtain a license to practice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Recent polls have identified nursing as one of the most trusted professions primarily because nurses possess the essential skills required to provide care to diverse populations. This includes cultural competence, empathy, effective communication, and clinical expertise. Choice A, engaging in lifelong learning, is indeed an important aspect of nursing practice; however, it is not the primary reason for the high level of trust placed in nurses. Choice B, abiding by a dress code, is a professional conduct issue and not directly linked to the trustworthiness of nurses. Choice D, passing the NCLEX exam for licensure, is a regulatory requirement and does not directly contribute to the trust placed in nurses by the public.

3. A client with type 1 DM is experiencing hypoglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Flushed skin
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. In hypoglycemia, the body releases adrenaline in response to low blood glucose levels, leading to symptoms such as tachycardia (rapid heart rate). Choice B, polyuria, refers to excessive urination and is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia. Choice C, flushed skin, is not a common symptom of hypoglycemia; instead, pale skin and sweating are more characteristic. Choice D, dry mouth, is not directly associated with hypoglycemia; rather, it can be a symptom of hyperglycemia or dehydration.

4. Which of the following is a primary goal of nursing?

• A. Assist patients in achieving a peaceful death.
• B. Enhance personal knowledge and skills to improve patient outcomes.
• C. Champion quality of life over quantity of life.
• D. Manage costs to enhance patients' quality of life.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary goal of nursing is to assist patients in achieving a peaceful death if recovery is not feasible. This involves providing comfort, dignity, and support during the end-of-life process. Choice B is incorrect because while improving personal knowledge and skills is important, it is not the primary goal of nursing. Choice C, advocating for quality of life over quantity of life, is a valid aspect of nursing care but may not always be the primary goal. Choice D, managing costs to enhance patients' quality of life, is not a primary goal of nursing, as the focus should primarily be on patient care and well-being, rather than financial considerations.

5. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:

• A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
• D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.

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