Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is teaching a new colleague about the correct administration of subcutaneous (subQ) injections. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle for subQ injections
• B. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication
• C. Pinch the skin before inserting the needle
• D. Massage the site after administering the injection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pinching the skin before inserting the needle is essential in elevating the subcutaneous tissue away from the muscle. This technique ensures that the medication is administered into the correct tissue layer, promoting proper absorption and decreasing the risk of injecting into muscle tissue.

2. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment because she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to take vital signs and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care.
• B. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client.
• C. Instruct the UAP that a standard mask is sufficient for the provision of care for the assigned client.
• D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. For droplet precautions, such as in the case of pertussis, a standard face mask is sufficient for protection. Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, not for droplet precautions. Therefore, the UAP can proceed with taking the vital signs using a standard mask without the need for a particulate filter mask. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to get fitted for a particulate filter mask before providing care in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as fitting for a particulate filter mask is not necessary for droplet precautions. Choice D is also incorrect because determining which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks is not relevant to the UAP's situation with the client on droplet precautions. It is important for healthcare workers to understand the appropriate use of personal protective equipment based on the type of precautions in place to provide safe and effective care to clients.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client's weight increases by 1 kg in 24 hours.
• B. The client's peritoneal effluent is cloudy.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client's peritoneal effluent is clear and pale yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cloudy peritoneal effluent (B) is a sign of infection and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. It indicates the presence of peritonitis, a severe complication that requires prompt intervention. Weight gain (A) may indicate fluid overload but is not as urgent as a potential infection. Elevated blood pressure (C) is a common finding in clients with kidney disease and needs monitoring but does not require immediate reporting. Clear and pale yellow effluent (D) is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.

4. Which assessment data would provide the most accurate determination of proper placement of a nasogastric tube?

• A. Aspirating gastric contents to assure a pH value of 4 or less.
• B. Hearing air pass in the stomach after injecting air into the tubing.
• C. Examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted.
• D. Checking the remaining length of tubing to ensure that the correct length was inserted.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most accurate method to confirm the proper placement of a nasogastric tube is by examining a chest x-ray obtained after the tubing was inserted. This visual assessment allows healthcare providers to directly visualize the position of the tube in relation to anatomical landmarks, ensuring it is correctly placed in the stomach. Aspirating gastric contents or hearing air pass may provide some information but are not as definitive as a chest x-ray for confirming placement. Checking the remaining length of tubing is not a reliable method for determining proper placement as it does not indicate where the tip of the tube lies within the body.

5. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

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