Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with diabetes mellitus, which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?

• A. Polydipsia.
• B. Polyuria.
• C. Sweating.
• D. Dry skin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sweating is a common sign of hypoglycemia in diabetic patients. When blood sugar levels drop too low, the body releases stress hormones like adrenaline, which can cause sweating as a response to the perceived danger. Polydipsia (excessive thirst) and polyuria (excessive urination) are actually more commonly associated with hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Dry skin is not typically a sign of hypoglycemia.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take my medication only when I have chest pain.
• B. I will follow a heart-healthy diet and exercise regularly.
• C. I will avoid smoking and limit alcohol intake.
• D. I will contact my doctor if I experience chest pain or shortness of breath.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement indicates a misunderstanding because medication for CAD should be taken as prescribed, not only when chest pain occurs.

3. Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?

• A. Does the client have her own teeth or dentures?
• B. Does the client take aspirin, and if so, what is the dosage?
• C. Does the client take nitroglycerin?
• D. Does the client take digitalis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.

4. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is prescribed for a hospitalized client scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client begins to experience diarrhea after drinking the solution. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Calling the physician
• B. Administering a cleansing enema
• C. Documenting the diarrhea in the medical record
• D. Giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse in this situation is to document the diarrhea in the medical record. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is a bowel evacuant used to cleanse the bowel before a colonoscopy. It is expected to cause mild diarrhea, which is a normal response to the medication. The diarrhea helps clear the bowel in preparation for the procedure. Calling the physician is not necessary unless there are complications. Administering a cleansing enema or giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts are not appropriate actions as they are not indicated for managing the expected diarrhea caused by GoLYTELY.

5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24 hours with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackles and bounding central pulse. Vital signs: temperature 101.2 F (38.4 C), heart rate 96 beats/minute, respiration 24 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Calculate total intake and output for the last 24 hours.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, abdominal pain, headache, crackles in the lungs, bounding pulse, and elevated blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate is crucial to prevent further fluid overload. This intervention helps in balancing fluid intake and output to prevent complications associated with fluid volume excess. Calculating total intake and output (Choice A) may be necessary but not the immediate priority in managing fluid overload. Administering acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with managing the fever but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation where fluid overload is a concern.

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