Nursing Elites

1. Early this morning, a female client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, Nurse Tina assesses the client, who now has nausea, a temperature of 105°F (40.5°C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

• A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
• B. Thyroid crisis
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tetany

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thyroid crisis. Thyroid crisis, also known as thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition that can occur after a thyroidectomy. Symptoms include high fever, tachycardia, extreme restlessness, and other signs of severe hyperthyroidism. Diabetic ketoacidosis (choice A) is a complication of diabetes characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and acidosis, not typically seen post-thyroidectomy. Hypoglycemia (choice C) is low blood sugar levels and would not present with the symptoms described. Tetany (choice D) is a condition of involuntary muscle spasms due to low calcium levels and is not directly related to the symptoms observed in this scenario.

2. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

3. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:

• A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
• C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
• D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed radioactive iodine therapy. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with hyperthyroidism undergoes radioactive iodine therapy, the treatment aims to reduce thyroid hormone production by destroying thyroid tissue. As a result, there is a high likelihood of developing hypothyroidism as a side effect. Monitoring for hypothyroidism is crucial post-treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the therapeutic goal is to address hyperthyroidism by inducing hypothyroidism through the treatment.

5. A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to 'manage up.' Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to 'manage up'?

• A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when asked for it.
• B. Assist your manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses.
• C. When working with a manager with poor leadership skills, transferring to a different unit is the best option.
• D. Show respect and appreciation for the manager, even when conversing with coworkers.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best way for a follower to 'manage up' is by assisting the manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses. By doing so, the follower helps build a good working relationship with the manager, fostering mutual growth and development. Choice A is not the best option as it only focuses on providing feedback when asked, which may not necessarily contribute to 'managing up.' Choice C is incorrect because transferring to a different unit should not be the first solution when dealing with a manager with poor leadership skills; instead, efforts should be made to improve the current working relationship. Choice D, while important, focuses more on showing respect and appreciation rather than actively helping the manager improve, which is key to 'managing up.'

Similar Questions