during shift report the central electrocardiogram ekg monitoring system alarms which client alarm should the nurse investigate first
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HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Quizlet

1. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.

2. The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's instructions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial following a TURP procedure as it may indicate a complication such as bleeding or clot formation. This symptom requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of post-TURP care, but identifying and reporting fresh blood in the urine take precedence due to its association with potential serious complications.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A serum osmolarity of 320 mOsm/kg is concerning in a client with HHS because it indicates severe dehydration and hyperosmolarity, which requires immediate intervention. In HHS, the elevated serum osmolarity leads to neurological symptoms and can result in serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a high serum glucose level (choice A) is typical in HHS, the osmolarity is a more direct indicator of dehydration and severity. Serum sodium (choice C) and potassium levels (choice D) are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition compared to the severe hyperosmolarity indicated by a high serum osmolarity level.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated blood pressure. In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure requires immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it may indicate worsening hypertension, which can lead to further complications. Increased fatigue (choice B) is common in CKD but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Headache (choice C) can be a symptom to monitor but does not pose an immediate threat like elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is actually a desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention.

5. Progressive kyphoscoliosis leading to respiratory distress is evident in a client with muscular dystrophy. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Evidence of hypoventilation. In a client with muscular dystrophy and progressive kyphoscoliosis, hypoventilation indicates respiratory muscle weakness and can lead to life-threatening respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while extremity muscle weakness, bilateral eyelid drooping, and inability to swallow pills are concerning symptoms in muscular dystrophy, evidence of hypoventilation poses a more immediate threat to the client's respiratory status.

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