HESI RN
Leadership HESI Quizlet
1. During a class on exercise for diabetic clients, a female client asks the nurse educator how often to exercise. The nurse educator advises the clients to exercise how often to meet the goals of planned exercise?
- A. At least once a week
- B. At least three times a week
- C. At least five times a week
- D. Every day
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Exercising at least five times a week is recommended to meet the goals of planned exercise for diabetic clients. This frequency helps in managing blood sugar levels effectively and improving overall health. Exercising once a week (Choice A) may not provide sufficient benefits or consistency required for diabetic clients. Exercising three times a week (Choice B) is better but may still fall short of the recommended frequency for optimal outcomes. Exercising every day (Choice D) may lead to burnout or overtraining if not properly balanced with rest days, which could be counterproductive for diabetic clients.
2. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?
- A. 1875 mg
- B. 625 mg
- C. 2000 mg
- D. 1500 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.
3. A hospitalized client has had difficulty falling asleep for two nights and is becoming irritable and restless. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows.
- B. Instruct the UAP not to wake the client under any circumstances during the night.
- C. Place a 'Do Not Disturb' sign on the door and change assessments from every 4 to every 8 hours.
- D. Encourage the client to avoid pain medication during the day, which might increase daytime napping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to determine the client's usual bedtime routine and include these rituals in the plan of care as safety allows. By incorporating familiar bedtime rituals that do not compromise the client's safety, the nurse can help the client fall asleep faster and improve the overall quality of care provided to the client.
4. The nurse is feeding an older adult who was admitted with aspiration pneumonia. The client is weak and begins coughing while attempting to drink through a straw. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage the client to drink more slowly
- B. Stop feeding and assess for signs of aspiration
- C. Elevate the head of the bed further
- D. Teach coughing and deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When an older adult with aspiration pneumonia coughs while attempting to drink, it may indicate aspiration. Aspiration can lead to serious complications. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse in this situation is to stop feeding immediately and assess the client for signs of aspiration. Encouraging the client to drink more slowly (Choice A) may not address the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed further (Choice C) is generally beneficial to prevent aspiration but is not the priority when immediate assessment is needed. Teaching coughing and deep breathing exercises (Choice D) is not appropriate when the client is actively coughing during feeding and requires immediate assessment for potential aspiration.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following clinical findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. Hyponatremia is a hallmark finding in SIADH due to the imbalance between water and sodium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with SIADH. Hypercalcemia (Choice C) involves elevated calcium levels, which are not directly related to SIADH. Hypernatremia (Choice D) is the opposite of what occurs in SIADH, where sodium levels are usually diluted due to water retention.