Nursing Elites

1. When examining sources for funding, which criteria should the nurse clarify about the program for the community group?

• A. a prescription from the healthcare provider for each visit made
• B. documentation of a skilled care service provided during the visit
• C. a copy of the client's health history and social security card
• D. a record of the preventive healthcare services provided during the visit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because when seeking funding sources for a community outreach program, it is essential to clarify aspects related to the client's personal information, such as health history and identification details. This information helps in demonstrating the need for the program and understanding the target population. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they focus on clinical documentation, services provided during visits, and preventive healthcare services, which are not directly related to clarifying funding criteria about the program.

2. A community health nurse is developing a program to address the opioid crisis in the community. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Providing education on the dangers of opioid use
• B. Distributing naloxone kits to first responders
• C. Offering support groups for individuals struggling with addiction
• D. Partnering with local pharmacies to monitor prescriptions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Distributing naloxone kits to first responders. Naloxone is a medication that can rapidly reverse opioid overdose, potentially saving lives. In an opioid crisis scenario, providing naloxone kits to first responders equips them to act swiftly in emergencies. Choice A, providing education on the dangers of opioid use, is important but may not be as immediately life-saving as naloxone distribution. Choice C, offering support groups, is valuable for long-term recovery but may not address the acute crisis of overdoses. Choice D, partnering with local pharmacies to monitor prescriptions, focuses on prevention rather than immediate response to overdoses.

3. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with hypoglycemia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 60 mg/dL.
• B. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• C. Tremors.
• D. Diaphoresis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a history of diabetes mellitus admitted with hypoglycemia, the finding that requires immediate intervention is tremors. Tremors can indicate severe hypoglycemia, which needs prompt attention to prevent complications such as seizures or loss of consciousness. While a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL is low, the presence of tremors signifies a more urgent situation. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute and diaphoresis are common physiological responses to hypoglycemia and do not necessarily require immediate intervention unless other severe symptoms are present.

4. A community health nurse is planning an intervention to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in the community. Which strategy is most effective?

• A. Hosting cooking classes on preparing healthy meals
• B. Offering free blood glucose screenings
• C. Distributing pamphlets on diabetes prevention
• D. Organizing a community walking program

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective strategy to reduce the incidence of type 2 diabetes in the community is hosting cooking classes on preparing healthy meals. This intervention provides practical skills and education that can directly impact dietary habits, leading to a decreased risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Offering free blood glucose screenings (Choice B) may help in early detection but does not address prevention. Distributing pamphlets on diabetes prevention (Choice C) provides information but lacks the interactive and hands-on approach of cooking classes. Organizing a community walking program (Choice D) promotes physical activity, which is beneficial, but dietary changes have a more significant impact on preventing type 2 diabetes.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning effectively?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation indicating effective functioning of the chest tube. This bubbling signifies that the suction system is working correctly and maintaining the desired negative pressure in the pleural space. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests an air leak, which is not a normal finding. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber may indicate a blockage or lack of communication between the pleural space and the water-seal, which is not ideal. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is a normal finding, but it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the chest tube function.

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