HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Quizlet
1. What is Diazepam used for?
- A. Management of post-partum hemorrhage.
- B. Management of pre-eclampsia.
- C. Induction of labor.
- D. Relieving anxiety.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diazepam is primarily used for relieving anxiety and muscle spasms. It is a benzodiazepine medication that works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter in the brain to produce a calming effect. While Diazepam is not used for managing post-partum hemorrhage, pre-eclampsia, or inducing labor, it is essential in treating anxiety disorders, muscle spasms, and certain types of seizures. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it aligns with the primary therapeutic use of Diazepam.
2. A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A healthcare provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?
- A. 3 to 5 ng/mL
- B. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL
- C. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL
- D. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic serum level for digoxin ranges from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. This range is considered optimal for therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels above 2 ng/mL may lead to digoxin toxicity, which can manifest as anorexia among other symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in monitoring the digoxin levels to ensure the client's safety and therapeutic effectiveness of the medication.
3. The nurse is assessing a 4-month-old infant who has just received routine immunizations. The mother reports that the baby has been fussy and has a low-grade fever since the immunizations. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. These are common side effects and should resolve within a few days
- B. Your baby may be having an allergic reaction to the immunizations
- C. You should bring your baby to the clinic immediately for evaluation
- D. You should give your baby aspirin to help with the fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is to reassure the mother that fussiness and low-grade fever are common side effects of immunizations in infants and should resolve within a few days. It is essential to educate the mother about these expected reactions to alleviate her concerns. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to immunizations usually present with more severe symptoms such as difficulty breathing or swelling. Choice C is not warranted unless there are concerning symptoms present. Choice D is inappropriate as aspirin is contraindicated in infants due to the risk of Reye's syndrome.
4. The patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin to treat an infection and taking acetaminophen for pain. The nurse should expect to review which lab values when monitoring for this drug’s side effects?
- A. Complete blood counts
- B. Electrolytes
- C. Liver enzymes
- D. Urinalysis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient is receiving a high dose of intravenous azithromycin, which is a macrolide antibiotic, in combination with acetaminophen, a potentially hepatotoxic drug, the nurse should monitor liver enzymes. High doses of macrolides when taken with hepatotoxic drugs like acetaminophen can lead to hepatotoxicity. Reviewing liver enzymes helps in early detection of liver damage. Complete blood counts (Choice A) are not typically affected by azithromycin or acetaminophen. Electrolytes (Choice B) are not directly impacted by these medications. Urinalysis (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for monitoring the side effects of azithromycin and acetaminophen combination therapy.
5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is exhibiting negative symptoms such as anhedonia and social withdrawal. Which intervention should be a priority for the nurse?
- A. Encourage participation in group activities.
- B. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication.
- C. Assist the client in setting realistic goals.
- D. Promote engagement in social interactions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging participation in group activities is a priority intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. Group activities provide structured social interactions and can help the client gradually re-engage with others, potentially reducing social withdrawal and improving social skills. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice B) is essential in managing positive symptoms of schizophrenia such as hallucinations and delusions, not negative symptoms like anhedonia and social withdrawal. While assisting the client in setting realistic goals (Choice C) is important for overall care, addressing social withdrawal and anhedonia is more immediate. Promoting engagement in social interactions (Choice D) is beneficial, but encouraging participation in group activities provides a structured and supportive environment that can specifically target the negative symptoms being exhibited.