Nursing Elites

1. What is Diazepam used for?

• A. Management of post-partum hemorrhage.
• B. Management of pre-eclampsia.
• C. Induction of labor.
• D. Relieving anxiety.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diazepam is primarily used for relieving anxiety and muscle spasms. It is a benzodiazepine medication that works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter in the brain to produce a calming effect. While Diazepam is not used for managing post-partum hemorrhage, pre-eclampsia, or inducing labor, it is essential in treating anxiety disorders, muscle spasms, and certain types of seizures. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it aligns with the primary therapeutic use of Diazepam.

2. Which of the following hormones promotes endometrial growth?

• A. LH
• B. FSH
• C. Estrogen
• D. Progesterone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen is the hormone responsible for promoting endometrial growth. Estrogen helps thicken the endometrium during the menstrual cycle in preparation for implantation. LH (Choice A) and FSH (Choice B) are involved in regulating the menstrual cycle but do not directly promote endometrial growth. Progesterone (Choice D) is important for maintaining the endometrium after ovulation but is not the primary hormone responsible for promoting its growth.

3. Mrs. Banda is a patient at the ward with complaints of light menstrual periods, which occur at intervals greater than 35 days. Your diagnosis will be:

• A. Oligomenorrhea
• B. Menorrhagia
• C. Metrorrhagia
• D. Polymenorrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis for Mrs. Banda's condition is Oligomenorrhea. Oligomenorrhea is characterized by light menstrual periods occurring at intervals longer than 35 days. Choice B, Menorrhagia, refers to abnormally heavy menstrual bleeding. Choice C, Metrorrhagia, is bleeding at irregular intervals, and Choice D, Polymenorrhea, involves menstrual cycles occurring at intervals shorter than 21 days.

4. Which of the following methods is used for permanent contraception in males?

• A. Vasectomy
• B. Tubal ligation
• C. Condoms
• D. Coitus interruptus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasectomy. Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for permanent contraception in males by cutting or blocking the vas deferens. Choice B, Tubal ligation, is a method for permanent contraception in females by blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes. Choice C, Condoms, provide a barrier method of contraception but are not permanent. Choice D, Coitus interruptus, involves withdrawing the penis before ejaculation and is not a reliable method of contraception.

5. Which of the following is NOT a phase of the menstrual cycle?

• A. Follicular phase
• B. Ovulatory phase
• C. Luteal phase
• D. Secretory phase

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The secretory phase is not considered a distinct phase of the menstrual cycle; it is actually part of the luteal phase. During the luteal phase, the endometrium thickens due to progesterone secretion, preparing for implantation. The follicular phase is characterized by follicle development, leading to ovulation. The ovulatory phase is when the mature egg is released from the ovary. Therefore, the secretory phase is the correct answer as it is not a standalone phase but a part of the luteal phase.

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