Nursing Elites

1. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?

• A. Ask a more experienced nurse to perform that scrub since it is the first time of the day
• B. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for surgical hand scrub
• C. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes between cases.
• D. Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration. Surgical hand scrubs should last for 5 to 10 minutes, ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should be guided to complete the scrub properly rather than having someone else do it. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the duration of the hand scrub. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a 3-minute hand scrub is sufficient, which is inadequate for proper preparation before surgery.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Obtain a blood glucose level.
• D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer 50% dextrose IV push first. In hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome, the main goal is to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels to prevent further complications. Administering dextrose intravenously can help reverse the effects of high blood glucose levels quickly. Administering intravenous fluids, monitoring urine output, and obtaining a blood glucose level are important interventions but are not the first priority in treating HHS. Administering 50% dextrose IV push takes precedence as it directly addresses the elevated blood glucose levels.

3. The nurse is caring for a 17-year-old male who fell 20 feet 5 months ago while climbing the side of a cliff and has been in a sustained vegetative state since the accident. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Talk directly to the adolescent while providing care
• B. Maintain silence during care to avoid overstimulation
• C. Play soothing music in the background
• D. Limit visitors to immediate family only

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Talking directly to the adolescent is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps maintain a sense of connection and respect, even if the response is not evident. Maintaining silence may lead to isolation and hinder any potential communication attempts. Playing soothing music may not provide the personal interaction needed for connection. Limiting visitors to immediate family only may deprive the patient of diverse interactions that could be beneficial for their emotional well-being.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Jugular venous distention
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Elevated liver enzymes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, the presence of crackles in the lungs is the most critical finding that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion, which requires prompt intervention to prevent respiratory compromise. Shortness of breath, though a common symptom in heart failure, is a result of pulmonary congestion, making crackles a more direct indicator of the severity of the condition. Jugular venous distention and elevated liver enzymes are important to assess in heart failure but are not as immediately concerning as crackles in the lungs, which directly reflect the impact of heart failure on the respiratory system.

5. A male client with impaired renal function who takes ibuprofen daily for chronic arthritis is admitted with gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. After administering IV fluids and a blood transfusion, his blood pressure is 100/70, and his renal output is 20 ml/hour. Which intervention should the nurse include in care?

• A. Maintain the client NPO during the diuresis phase.
• B. Evaluate daily serial renal laboratory studies for progressive elevations.
• C. Observe the urine character for sedimentation and cloudy appearance.
• D. Monitor for onset of polyuria greater than 150ml/hour.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Evaluating daily renal laboratory studies is crucial in this scenario. The client has impaired renal function, recent GI bleeding, and is at risk for further kidney damage due to ibuprofen use. Monitoring renal labs helps assess kidney function and detect any progressive elevations, guiding further interventions. Option A is not directly related to renal function monitoring. Option C focuses more on urine appearance than renal function assessment. Option D mentions polyuria, which is excessive urine output, but the question describes a client with reduced renal output.

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