HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?
- A. Ask a more experienced nurse to perform that scrub since it is the first time of the day
- B. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for surgical hand scrub
- C. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes between cases.
- D. Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration. Surgical hand scrubs should last for 5 to 10 minutes, ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should be guided to complete the scrub properly rather than having someone else do it. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the duration of the hand scrub. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a 3-minute hand scrub is sufficient, which is inadequate for proper preparation before surgery.
2. In a client with heart failure receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix), which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
- A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dl
- C. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl
- D. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is low and concerning in a client receiving digoxin and furosemide. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Therefore, immediate intervention is necessary to prevent complications. The other options, serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L, blood glucose of 200 mg/dl, and serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dl, are within normal limits and do not pose immediate risks to the client in this scenario.
3. A female client with breast cancer who completed her first chemotherapy treatment today at an outpatient center is preparing for discharge. Which behavior indicates that the client understands her care needs?
- A. Rented movies and borrowed books to use while passing time at home
- B. Made an appointment with the oncologist for follow-up treatment
- C. Expressed concern about hair loss and fatigue
- D. Asked for dietary recommendations to manage nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer. Renting movies and borrowing books to use at home indicate that the client understands the need for rest and self-care after chemotherapy. This behavior demonstrates the client's intention to engage in activities that promote relaxation and recovery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because making an appointment for follow-up treatment, expressing concern about side effects like hair loss and fatigue, and asking for dietary recommendations are important but do not directly reflect the client's understanding of her immediate care needs post-chemotherapy.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Elevated blood pressure
- C. Headache
- D. Elevated hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Increased fatigue.' In a client with CKD receiving erythropoietin therapy, increased fatigue can be a sign of polycythemia, a condition characterized by an elevated red blood cell count. This can lead to increased blood viscosity and raise the risk of thromboembolic events, necessitating immediate intervention. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is a common concern in CKD but does not require immediate intervention in this context. Headache (choice C) may be related to elevated blood pressure but is not the most critical finding requiring immediate attention. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention unless excessively high.
5. During shift report, the central electrocardiogram (EKG) monitoring system alarms. Which client alarm should the nurse investigate first?
- A. Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds
- B. Oxygen saturation rate of 88%
- C. Eight premature ventricular beats every minute
- D. Disconnected monitor signal for the last 6 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory apnea of 30 seconds. Respiratory apnea indicates a cessation of breathing, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention. Priority should be given to assessing and managing airway, breathing, and circulation. Option B, oxygen saturation rate of 88%, can indicate hypoxemia, but addressing the lack of breathing takes precedence. Option C, eight premature ventricular beats every minute, and option D, a disconnected monitor signal, are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to respiratory apnea.
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