HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?
- A. Ask a more experienced nurse to perform that scrub since it is the first time of the day
- B. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for surgical hand scrub
- C. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes between cases.
- D. Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration. Surgical hand scrubs should last for 5 to 10 minutes, ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should be guided to complete the scrub properly rather than having someone else do it. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the duration of the hand scrub. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a 3-minute hand scrub is sufficient, which is inadequate for proper preparation before surgery.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
- C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
- D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, which is crucial in reducing further damage. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is important to assess for changes indicative of myocardial infarction, but providing oxygen takes precedence as it directly addresses the physiological need for oxygen. Administering nitroglycerin and aspirin are important interventions but are typically implemented after oxygen therapy to address vasodilation and antiplatelet effects, respectively.
3. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that symptoms of an acute episode of asthma are due to which physiological response?
- A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm
- B. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction
- C. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse
- D. Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation. During an acute asthma episode, bronchoconstriction and airway inflammation occur, leading to difficulty breathing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Inflammation of the mucous membrane and bronchospasm (Choice A) are part of the pathophysiology of asthma but do not fully explain the symptoms during an acute episode. Increased mucus production and airway obstruction (Choice B) are also seen in asthma but are not the primary cause of acute symptoms. Hyperinflation of the lungs and alveolar collapse (Choice C) are not typical features of an acute asthma episode.
4. A young adult male is admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His pH is 7.25, HCO3 is 12 mEq/L, and blood glucose is 310 mg/dl. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Infuse sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline)
- B. Prepare an emergency dose of glucagon
- C. Determine the last time the client ate
- D. Check urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In DKA, restoring fluid balance with sodium chloride is a priority to address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances present in this condition. Choice B, preparing an emergency dose of glucagon, is incorrect because DKA is characterized by insulin deficiency, not glucagon deficiency. Choice C, determining the last time the client ate, is not the immediate priority in managing DKA. Choice D, checking urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick, may help confirm the diagnosis of DKA but is not the most critical intervention at this time.
5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a renal biopsy. Which laboratory value should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before the procedure?
- A. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
- B. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
- C. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dl
- D. Platelet count of 90,000/mm3
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm3 is low and concerning for a client scheduled for a renal biopsy, as it increases the risk of bleeding. Thrombocytopenia, indicated by a low platelet count, can lead to impaired blood clotting, posing a significant risk of bleeding during or after the biopsy procedure. Elevated serum creatinine levels may be expected in chronic kidney disease but are not directly related to bleeding risk during a renal biopsy. Prothrombin time and hemoglobin levels are not as directly relevant to the bleeding risk associated with a renal biopsy as platelet count.
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