Nursing Elites

1. A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend first?

• A. Plan low carbohydrate and high protein meals
• B. Engage in strenuous activity for an hour daily
• C. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily
• D. Participate in a group exercise class 3 times a week

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Keeping a food diary is a good first step to understand eating habits before making any dietary or activity changes.

2. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

3. During a routine assessment, an obese 50-year-old female client expresses concern about her sexual relationship with her husband. Which is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Reassure the client that many obese individuals have concerns about sex.
• B. Remind the client that sexual relationships can be maintained regardless of weight.
• C. Determine the frequency of sexual intercourse.
• D. Ask the client to talk about specific concerns.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to ask the client to talk about specific concerns. This approach provides an opportunity for the client to express her worries openly, allowing the nurse to gather more detailed information for a comprehensive assessment and to address the client's concerns effectively.

4. A healthcare professional is teaching a new colleague about the correct administration of subcutaneous (subQ) injections. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle for subQ injections
• B. Aspirate for blood return before injecting the medication
• C. Pinch the skin before inserting the needle
• D. Massage the site after administering the injection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pinching the skin before inserting the needle is essential in elevating the subcutaneous tissue away from the muscle. This technique ensures that the medication is administered into the correct tissue layer, promoting proper absorption and decreasing the risk of injecting into muscle tissue.

5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

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