an unlicensed assistive personnel uap who usually works on a surgical unit is assigned to float to a pediatric unit which question by the charge nurse
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), who usually works on a surgical unit, is assigned to float to a pediatric unit. Which question by the charge nurse would be most appropriate when making delegation decisions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate question by the charge nurse would be to ask the UAP if they have reviewed the list of expected skills needed on the pediatric unit. This ensures that the UAP is aware of the specific skills required for safe and appropriate care in that particular unit. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need for the UAP to review the expected skills, which is crucial for delegation decisions during floating assignments.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed antibiotics. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to give the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to give a client with a UTI who is prescribed antibiotics is to complete the full course of antibiotics. Completing the full course of antibiotics is essential to ensure that the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. While taking antibiotics with food, increasing fluid intake, and managing discomfort with pain relievers are important aspects of UTI management, completing the prescribed course of antibiotics is the top priority to achieve the best treatment outcomes and prevent recurrence of the infection.

3. A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the client's plan of care is to monitor blood glucose levels regularly. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content of the solution. Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to ensure appropriate management of blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the TPN infusion rate based on hunger is not a valid parameter for adjusting TPN. Choice B is incorrect because TPN should be administered through a central line, not a peripheral IV line, to prevent complications. Choice D is incorrect because TPN solutions should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated.

5. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding due to impaired liver function. Which laboratory result is the most important to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is a critical indicator of bleeding risk in clients with liver dysfunction. Impaired liver function reduces clotting factor production, leading to an increased PT, which requires close monitoring. Monitoring BUN (Choice A) is more indicative of kidney function, not clotting ability. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (Choice C) and serum albumin (Choice D) are important indicators of liver function, but they do not directly assess the client's bleeding risk.

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