HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), who usually works on a surgical unit, is assigned to float to a pediatric unit. Which question by the charge nurse would be most appropriate when making delegation decisions?
- A. How long have you been a UAP and what units have you worked on?
- B. What type of care do you provide on the surgical unit, and what are the ages of the clients?
- C. What is your comfort level in caring for children and at what ages?
- D. Have you reviewed the list of expected skills you might need on this unit?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most appropriate question by the charge nurse would be to ask the UAP if they have reviewed the list of expected skills needed on the pediatric unit. This ensures that the UAP is aware of the specific skills required for safe and appropriate care in that particular unit. Choices A, B, and C do not directly address the need for the UAP to review the expected skills, which is crucial for delegation decisions during floating assignments.
2. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed antibiotics. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to give the client?
- A. Take the antibiotics with food
- B. Complete the full course of antibiotics
- C. Increase fluid intake to at least 2 liters per day
- D. Take over-the-counter pain relievers for discomfort
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to give a client with a UTI who is prescribed antibiotics is to complete the full course of antibiotics. Completing the full course of antibiotics is essential to ensure that the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. While taking antibiotics with food, increasing fluid intake, and managing discomfort with pain relievers are important aspects of UTI management, completing the prescribed course of antibiotics is the top priority to achieve the best treatment outcomes and prevent recurrence of the infection.
3. A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.
4. The nurse is providing care for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Increase the TPN infusion rate if the client is hungry
- B. Administer TPN via a peripheral IV line
- C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly
- D. Ensure the TPN solution is refrigerated at all times
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the client's plan of care is to monitor blood glucose levels regularly. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content of the solution. Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to ensure appropriate management of blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the TPN infusion rate based on hunger is not a valid parameter for adjusting TPN. Choice B is incorrect because TPN should be administered through a central line, not a peripheral IV line, to prevent complications. Choice D is incorrect because TPN solutions should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated.
5. A client with cirrhosis is at risk for bleeding due to impaired liver function. Which laboratory result is the most important to monitor?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
- D. Serum albumin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is a critical indicator of bleeding risk in clients with liver dysfunction. Impaired liver function reduces clotting factor production, leading to an increased PT, which requires close monitoring. Monitoring BUN (Choice A) is more indicative of kidney function, not clotting ability. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (Choice C) and serum albumin (Choice D) are important indicators of liver function, but they do not directly assess the client's bleeding risk.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access