Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs. Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L should be closely monitored in a client with chronic heart failure as it may indicate hyperkalemia, requiring intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart failure. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is important to monitor for kidney function but is not the priority in this case. Serum sodium (Choice B) and blood glucose (Choice D) levels are not typically the primary focus when assessing a client with heart failure presenting with respiratory symptoms and crackles in the lungs.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased fatigue
• C. Headache
• D. Elevated hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated blood pressure. In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure requires immediate intervention. This finding is concerning as it may indicate worsening hypertension, which can lead to further complications. Increased fatigue (choice B) is common in CKD but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Headache (choice C) can be a symptom to monitor but does not pose an immediate threat like elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin (choice D) is actually a desired outcome of erythropoietin therapy and does not require immediate intervention.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• C. Assess the client's oxygen saturation.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation is the first priority in managing a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation levels helps in determining the effectiveness of the oxygen therapy and if adjustments are needed. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing but is not the first priority. Administering oxygen therapy as prescribed is important, but assessing the current oxygen saturation comes before administering more oxygen. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample may provide valuable information, but it is not the initial intervention needed in this situation.

4. A nurse is teaching a client with type 2 diabetes about the importance of foot care. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should check my feet every day for cuts or blisters.
• B. I need to moisturize my feet daily, especially between my toes.
• C. I should wear comfortable shoes that fit well.
• D. I should avoid walking barefoot, even indoors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Moisturizing between the toes can create a moist environment that fosters fungal infections. Checking the feet daily for cuts or blisters (choice A) is correct in diabetes management to prevent complications. Wearing comfortable shoes that fit well (choice C) and avoiding walking barefoot (choice D) are also essential in preventing foot ulcers and injuries in diabetic patients.

5. An elderly female client with osteoarthritis reports increasing pain and stiffness in her right knee and asks how to reduce these symptoms. In responding to the client, the nurse recognizes what pathology as the cause of her symptoms?

• A. Destruction of joint cartilage.
• B. Inflammation of synovial membrane.
• C. Formation of bone spurs.
• D. Reduction of joint space.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Osteoarthritis typically involves the destruction of joint cartilage, leading to pain and stiffness. This destruction of joint cartilage results in bone rubbing against bone, causing pain and reduced mobility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Inflammation of the synovial membrane (choice B) is more commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Formation of bone spurs (choice C) and reduction of joint space (choice D) are manifestations that can occur as a result of osteoarthritis but are not the primary pathology responsible for the symptoms of pain and stiffness.

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