Nursing Elites

1. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
• C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
• D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

2. A client arrived to the medical-surgical unit 4 hours after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). A triple-lumen catheter for continuous bladder irrigation with normal saline is infusing, and the nurse observes dark, pink-tinged outflow with blood clots in the tubing and collection bag. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Monitoring catheter drainage
• B. Decreasing the flow rate
• C. Irrigating the catheter manually
• D. Discontinuing infusing the solution

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should choose option C - irrigating the catheter manually. This action can help clear the clots from the catheter and ensure proper bladder drainage. Monitoring catheter drainage (option A) alone may not address the issue of clots obstructing the flow. Decreasing the flow rate (option B) could potentially worsen clot formation. Discontinuing the infusing solution (option D) without addressing the clots first may lead to inadequate irrigation and increase the risk of complications.

3. After educating a client with hypertension secondary to renal disease, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

• A. I can prevent more damage to my kidneys by managing my blood pressure.
• B. If I have increased urination at night, I need to drink less fluid during the day.
• C. I need to see the registered dietitian to discuss limiting my protein intake.
• D. It is important that I take my antihypertensive medications as directed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is incorrect because the client should not restrict fluids during the day due to increased urination at night. Clients with renal disease may be prescribed fluid restrictions, and they should be thoroughly assessed for potential dehydration. To decrease increased nocturnal voiding, clients should consume fluids earlier in the day. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements. Managing blood pressure is crucial to slow the progression of renal dysfunction. Limiting protein intake is important in renal disease management, and clients should be referred to a dietitian as needed. Taking antihypertensive medications as directed is essential for blood pressure control.

4. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Hold the dose and notify the provider.
• B. Request an order for a blood glucose level.
• C. Request an order for a BUN and creatinine level.
• D. Request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.

5. An 81-year-old male client has emphysema. He lives at home with his cat and manages self-care with no difficulty. When making a home visit, the nurse notices that his tongue is somewhat cracked, and his eyeballs are sunken into his head. What nursing intervention is indicated?

• A. Help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake.
• B. Obtain an appointment for the client to see a pulmonologist.
• C. Schedule an appointment with a nutritionist to assess the client's diet.
• D. Encourage the client to slightly increase his use of oxygen at night and to always use humidified oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention in this scenario is to assist the client in finding ways to increase his fluid intake. Clients with COPD, including emphysema, should aim to consume at least three liters of fluids per day to help keep their mucus thin. As the disease progresses, these clients may decrease fluid intake due to various reasons. Suggesting creative methods, such as having disposable fruit juices readily available, can help the client meet this goal. Option B is incorrect as seeing an ear, nose, and throat specialist is not directly related to the client's symptoms. Option C is not the priority in this case, as the main concern is addressing the client's dehydration. Option D does not address the immediate need for managing the client's dehydration and is not the most appropriate intervention at this time.

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