Nursing Elites

1. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
• C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
• D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

2. What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?

• A. Maintaining oxygen saturation above 92%
• B. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds
• C. Maintaining a balanced intake and output
• D. Absence of shortness of breath at rest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.

3. The healthcare provider is unable to palpate the client's left pedal pulses. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take next?

• A. Auscultate the pulses with a stethoscope.
• B. Call the physician.
• C. Use a Doppler ultrasound device.
• D. Inspect the lower left extremity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When pedal pulses are not palpable, using a Doppler ultrasound device is the appropriate next step to locate the pulse. Auscultating the pulses with a stethoscope (Choice A) is used for assessing blood flow in arteries above the clavicle, not for pedal pulses. Calling the physician (Choice B) may be necessary at a later stage, but initially, using a Doppler ultrasound device to locate the pulse is more appropriate. Inspecting the lower left extremity (Choice D) can provide visual information but will not help in locating the pedal pulses, making it a less suitable option.

4. What is a priority intervention for a patient experiencing a thyroid storm?

• A. Administering antipyretics.
• B. Cooling the patient.
• C. Administering beta-blockers.
• D. Administering antithyroid medications.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a thyroid storm, the priority intervention is to administer antithyroid medications to reduce thyroid hormone levels quickly. These medications, such as propylthiouracil or methimazole, help inhibit the production of thyroid hormones. Administering antipyretics (choice A) may help reduce fever, but it does not address the underlying cause of the thyroid storm. Cooling the patient (choice B) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the thyroid hormone dysregulation. Administering beta-blockers (choice C) can help manage symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension, but it does not target the root cause of the thyroid storm.

5. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is admitted after vomiting bright red blood several times over the course of 2 hours. In reviewing the laboratory results, the nurse finds the client's hemoglobin is 12 g/dL (120g/L) and the hematocrit is 35% (0.35). Which action should the nurse prepare to take?

• A. Continue monitoring for blood loss
• B. Administer 1,000 mL (1L) of normal saline
• C. Transfuse 2 units of platelets
• D. Prepare the client for emergency surgery

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare the client for emergency surgery. The client's presentation with bright red blood in vomitus suggests active bleeding, which is a medical emergency. With a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 35%, the client is likely experiencing significant blood loss that may require surgical intervention to address the source of bleeding. Continuing to monitor for blood loss (Choice A) is not appropriate in this acute situation where immediate action is necessary. Administering normal saline (Choice B) may help with fluid resuscitation but does not address the underlying cause of bleeding. Transfusing platelets (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as platelets are involved in clot formation and are not the primary treatment for active bleeding in this context.

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