Nursing Elites

1. An obese client with emphysema who smoked at least a pack of cigarettes daily is admitted after experiencing a sudden increase in dyspnea and activity intolerance. Oxygen therapy is initiated, and it is determined that the client will be discharged with oxygen. Which information is most important for the nurse to emphasize in the discharge teaching plan?

• A. Methods for weight loss
• B. Guidelines for oxygen use
• C. Approaches to conserve energy
• D. Strategies for smoking cessation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority for the nurse to emphasize in the discharge teaching plan is the 'Guidelines for oxygen use.' As the client with emphysema is being discharged with oxygen therapy, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure that the client understands how to use oxygen properly to prevent complications and promote effective management of the condition. While weight loss, conserving energy, and smoking cessation are important aspects of care for this client, in this specific case, ensuring the safe and appropriate use of supplemental oxygen takes precedence to optimize the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.

2. Which of the following is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea?

• A. Supine position.
• B. Fowler's position.
• C. Trendelenburg position.
• D. Lateral recumbent position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the best position for a patient experiencing dyspnea. This position involves sitting the patient upright with the head of the bed elevated between 45-60 degrees. Fowler's position helps improve breathing in patients with dyspnea by promoting lung expansion, aiding in better oxygenation, and reducing the work of breathing. The supine position (Choice A) may worsen dyspnea by limiting lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position (Choice C) with the feet elevated and the head down is not recommended for dyspnea as it can increase pressure on the chest and compromise breathing. The lateral recumbent position (Choice D) is not ideal for dyspnea as it does not provide optimal lung expansion and may not alleviate breathing difficulty.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing an older Caucasian male who has a history of peripheral vascular disease. The healthcare provider observes that the man's left great toe is black. The discoloration is probably a result of:

• A. Atrophy.
• B. Contraction.
• C. Gangrene.
• D. Rubor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gangrene refers to dead, blackened tissue, often a result of chronic ischemia in clients with peripheral vascular disease. Atrophy (Choice A) is the wasting away or decrease in size of tissue or organ. Contraction (Choice B) refers to the shortening or tightening of a muscle or other body part. Rubor (Choice D) is a red discoloration of the skin, often associated with inflammation or poor circulation, but not typically presenting as blackening like gangrene.

4. A client who is mouth breathing is receiving oxygen by face mask. The nursing assistant asks the nurse why a water bottle is attached to the oxygen tubing near the wall oxygen outlet. The nurse responds that the primary purpose of the water is to:

• A. Prevent the client from getting a nosebleed
• B. Give the client added fluid by way of the respiratory tree
• C. Humidify the oxygen that is bypassing the client’s nose
• D. Prevent fluid loss from the lungs during mouth breathing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The purpose of the water bottle is to humidify the oxygen that is bypassing the nose during mouth breathing. When a client breathes through the mouth, the oxygen delivered by the face mask bypasses the natural humidification provided by the nasal passages. Therefore, the water bottle attachment helps to add moisture to the oxygen, preventing dryness and irritation to the respiratory tract. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Clients breathing through the mouth are not at risk for nosebleeds, do not receive added fluid through the respiratory tree, and do not experience fluid loss from the lungs due to mouth breathing.

5. The patient is taking low-dose erythromycin prophylactically and will start cefaclor for treating an acute infection. The nurse should discuss this with the provider because taking both medications simultaneously can cause which effect?

• A. Decreased effectiveness of cefaclor.
• B. Increased effectiveness of cefaclor.
• C. Decreased effectiveness of erythromycin.
• D. Increased effectiveness of erythromycin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When erythromycin and cefaclor are taken together, erythromycin can inhibit the metabolism of cefaclor, leading to elevated cefaclor levels and potentially causing adverse effects. This results in a decrease in the effectiveness of cefaclor. Therefore, the nurse should discuss this potential drug interaction with the provider to consider an alternative treatment or adjust the dosages to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the concern lies with the effect on cefaclor when combined with erythromycin, not the effect on erythromycin itself.

Similar Questions