HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. During a routine physical exam, a male adolescent client tells the nurse, 'sometimes, my mother gets angry because I want to be with my own friends.' What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Offer reassurance that his mother's concern is normal
- B. Determine if his friends are engaged in unsafe behaviors
- C. Ask about the client's response to his mother's anger
- D. Offer to discuss his concerns with his mother
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client expresses concerns about family dynamics, it is important to explore their feelings and reactions to the situation. By asking about the client's response to his mother's anger, the nurse can gain insight into the client's emotions, thoughts, and coping mechanisms. Understanding these aspects is crucial in providing appropriate support and guidance. Option A is incorrect because it focuses solely on reassuring the client about his mother's concern without addressing the client's feelings. Option B assumes negative behaviors without evidence. Option D jumps to discussing concerns with the mother without understanding the client's perspective first.
2. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?
- A. Administer activated charcoal
- B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
- C. Prepare for gastric lavage
- D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.
3. A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 to 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?
- A. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds.
- B. Diaphragmatic respiration.
- C. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute.
- D. Flaring of the nares.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a clinical sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates an increased effort to breathe and is a crucial finding that requires immediate attention, as it signifies the child is having difficulty breathing and may be in respiratory distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds may be present in conditions like pneumonia but do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic respiration is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute in a 4-month-old infant is within the expected range, so it does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.
4. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the parent about recent exposure to contagious diseases
- B. Review the child’s immunization record
- C. Measure the child’s temperature
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.
5. What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?
- A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
- B. Encourage the child to cough and take deep breaths.
- C. Report the findings to the healthcare provider.
- D. Identify the triggers that precipitated this attack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.
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