HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and the initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is most important to include in this client's discharge plan?
- A. Describe the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
- B. Encourage a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet.
- C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
- D. Suggest wearing a medical alert bracelet at all times.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging a low-carbohydrate and high-protein diet is crucial for a client recovering from anorexia nervosa to prevent hypoglycemic episodes. Choice A is not the most important intervention at this point since the client is already aware of hypoglycemia based on the recent event. Choice C is important but not the priority in this situation where dietary intervention is crucial. Choice D, suggesting a medical alert bracelet, is not as essential as ensuring proper nutrition to prevent further hypoglycemic episodes.
2. A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed due to early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Assign a UAP to assist the client with a warm shower early in the morning.
- B. Administer anti-inflammatory medication before the procedure.
- C. Encourage the client to perform range-of-motion exercises.
- D. Reschedule the procedure for later in the day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A warm shower can help alleviate stiffness, allowing the client to be more comfortable and mobile before the procedure. This intervention promotes increased comfort and mobility, which may help the client proceed with the procedure later in the day. Administering anti-inflammatory medication (Choice B) may be helpful but may take time to be effective, while range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) may be challenging for the client due to stiffness. Rescheduling the procedure (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to alleviate stiffness.
3. A 59-year-old male client comes to the clinic and reports his concern over a lump that 'just popped up on my neck about a week ago.' In performing an examination of the lump, the nurse palpates a large, nontender, hardened left subclavian lymph node. There is no overlying tissue inflammation. What do these findings suggest?
- A. Malignancy
- B. Infection
- C. Benign cyst
- D. Lymphadenitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Malignancy. A large, non-tender, hardened lymph node is a typical sign of malignancy and warrants further investigation. Choice B (Infection) is incorrect because typically in infections, lymph nodes are tender and may show signs of inflammation. Choice C (Benign cyst) is incorrect as a benign cyst would usually present as a soft, mobile lump. Choice D (Lymphadenitis) is incorrect as lymphadenitis usually presents with tender and enlarged lymph nodes due to inflammation.
4. When caring for a client with traumatic brain injury (TBI) who had a craniotomy for increased intracranial pressure (ICP), the nurse assesses the client using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) every two hours. For the past 8 hours, the client's GCS score has been 14. What does this GCS finding indicate about the client?
- A. Neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP.
- B. At risk for neurological deterioration.
- C. Experiencing mild cognitive impairment.
- D. In need of immediate medical intervention.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A GCS score of 14 indicates that the client is neurologically stable without indications of increased ICP. It suggests that the client's neurological status is relatively intact, with only mild impairment, if any. This finding reassures the nurse that there are currently no signs of deterioration or immediate need for intervention. Choice B is incorrect because a GCS score of 14 does not necessarily indicate immediate risk for neurological deterioration. Choice C is incorrect as mild cognitive impairment is not typically inferred from a GCS score of 14. Choice D is incorrect as immediate medical intervention is not warranted based on a GCS score of 14 without other concerning symptoms.
5. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?
- A. Is there a history of female baldness in your family?
- B. Are you under any unusual stress at home or work?
- C. Do you work with hazardous chemicals?
- D. Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the manifestations reported by the client, such as coarse hair, missing eyebrows, and puffy eyes, are indicative of hypothyroidism. Changes in the fingernails, such as brittle or pitted nails, can also be associated with hypothyroidism. Option A is incorrect as female baldness is not directly related to the reported symptoms. Option B is less relevant as stress typically does not cause these specific symptoms. Option C is also less relevant as exposure to hazardous chemicals would present with different symptoms.
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