Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of using pethidine?

• A. Relieve constriction ring.
• B. Relieve pain.
• C. Affect milk production.
• D. Induce labor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pethidine is primarily used to relieve pain. It is an opioid analgesic commonly used for pain relief in various medical settings. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as pethidine is not indicated for relieving constriction ring, affecting milk production, or inducing labor.

2. Approximately how many primordial follicles are present in the cortex of the ovary at birth?

• A. 250,000
• B. 200,000
• C. 150,000
• D. 100,000

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 250,000. At birth, there are approximately 250,000 primordial follicles in the cortex of each ovary. These primordial follicles represent the reserve of oocytes that a female will have throughout her reproductive life. Choice B, 200,000, is incorrect as the number is higher. Choices C and D, 150,000 and 100,000 respectively, are also incorrect as they underestimate the actual number of primordial follicles present at birth.

3. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?

• A. Cervical excitation test
• B. Chadwick sign
• C. Jacquiners sign
• D. Palmers sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.

4. Which of the following is a common presentation in women with polycystic ovarian syndrome?

• A. Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism
• B. Amenorrhea, generalized hair loss, and weight gain
• C. Repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain
• D. Fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oligomenorrhea, obesity, and hirsutism. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) commonly presents with irregular periods (oligomenorrhea), obesity, and increased hair growth (hirsutism) due to hormonal imbalances. Choice B is incorrect as amenorrhea (absence of periods), generalized hair loss, and weight gain are not typical features of PCOS. Choice C is incorrect as repeated ectopic pregnancies and chronic pelvic pain are not characteristic of PCOS. Choice D is incorrect as fatigue, body aches, and menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding) are not primary symptoms seen in PCOS.

5. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

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