HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. What is the primary purpose of using pethidine?
- A. Relieve constriction ring.
- B. Relieve pain.
- C. Affect milk production.
- D. Induce labor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pethidine is primarily used to relieve pain. It is an opioid analgesic commonly used for pain relief in various medical settings. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as pethidine is not indicated for relieving constriction ring, affecting milk production, or inducing labor.
2. What is the role of relaxin hormone?
- A. Relaxation of the symphysis pubis.
- B. Stimulation of milk production.
- C. Stimulating the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast.
- D. None of the above.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Relaxation of the symphysis pubis. Relaxin hormone is responsible for loosening the ligaments in the pelvic area, particularly the symphysis pubis, to prepare for childbirth. Choice B, stimulation of milk production, is incorrect as this is primarily regulated by prolactin. Choice C, stimulating the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast, is incorrect as this is mainly influenced by estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy. Therefore, the correct role of relaxin hormone is the relaxation of the symphysis pubis.
3. What does Informed Consent mean?
- A. A patient has the right to know what a procedure involves before it is performed.
- B. Forcing all patients scheduled for surgery to sign a consent form.
- C. Telling the patient to sign the consent form without explanation.
- D. Allowing patients to undergo procedures without their consent.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Informed Consent means that a patient has the right to be informed about what a procedure involves before it is performed. Choice B is incorrect because consent should not be forced, and patients should have the opportunity to understand what they are agreeing to. Choice C is incorrect as it goes against the essence of informed consent, which requires explanation. Choice D is incorrect as it contradicts the fundamental principle of requiring patient consent before procedures.
4. What is a cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta known as?
- A. Battledore insertion
- B. Placenta velamentosa
- C. Placenta accreta
- D. Vasa Praevia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta is known as battledore insertion. This occurs when the cord is attached to the fetal membranes at the placental margin rather than directly to the placental tissue. Placenta velamentosa refers to the condition where the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes before it reaches the placenta. Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. Vasa Praevia is a condition where fetal blood vessels run across or near the internal cervical opening.
5. What prompted Zambia to implement family planning services?
- A. The nation started to experience the effects of rapid population growth on the economy and individual welfare.
- B. Donors provided free family planning pills.
- C. Mothers were delivering twice a year.
- D. There were too many abortions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rapid population growth's impact on the economy and individual welfare prompted Zambia to implement family planning services. This is because a rapidly growing population can strain resources, lead to unemployment, poverty, and inadequate access to healthcare. Choice B is incorrect because the provision of free family planning pills by donors may have been a subsequent intervention rather than the initial reason for implementing family planning services. Choice C is irrelevant as the frequency of deliveries by mothers does not directly relate to the implementation of family planning services. Choice D is also incorrect as high abortion rates may be a consequence of inadequate family planning services rather than the reason for their implementation.
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