Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary purpose of using pethidine?

• A. Relieve constriction ring.
• B. Relieve pain.
• C. Affect milk production.
• D. Induce labor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pethidine is primarily used to relieve pain. It is an opioid analgesic commonly used for pain relief in various medical settings. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as pethidine is not indicated for relieving constriction ring, affecting milk production, or inducing labor.

2. When does threatened abortion occur?

• A. The patient experiences slight vaginal bleeding through an undilated cervix.
• B. The patient experiences heavy bleeding and cervical dilation.
• C. The patient experiences severe cramping and heavy bleeding.
• D. The patient experiences painless bleeding and an open cervix.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Threatened abortion occurs when the patient experiences slight vaginal bleeding through an undilated cervix. This is characterized by bleeding without cervical dilation, distinguishing it from inevitable abortion (heavy bleeding and cervical dilation), incomplete abortion (severe cramping and heavy bleeding), and missed abortion (painless bleeding and an open cervix).

3. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?

• A. Threatened
• B. Imminent
• C. Missed
• D. Incomplete

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.

4. What is amniocentesis used to detect?

• A. Sexually transmitted diseases
• B. Presence of certain genetic disorders
• C. Causes of infertility
• D. Presence of pneumonia germs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amniocentesis is a prenatal test used to detect certain genetic disorders in a developing fetus. It involves collecting a small sample of the amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus and analyzing the genetic material present in the cells. This test is not used to detect sexually transmitted diseases, causes of infertility, or the presence of pneumonia germs. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

5. What is the definition of incomplete abortion?

• A. Part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, is expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained.
• B. All products of conception are expelled, and there is minimal per vaginal bleeding.
• C. The cervix is closed, and the products of conception remain in the uterus.
• D. The cervix dilates, and the products of conception are expelled.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Incomplete abortion is defined as part of the products of conception, especially the fetus, being expelled while the placenta and membranes are retained. This is the correct definition, making option A the right choice. Option B is incorrect as it describes a complete abortion. Option C is incorrect because in incomplete abortion, the products of conception are not retained in the uterus, and the cervix may be open. Option D is incorrect as it describes a situation more likely to be seen in an inevitable abortion.

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