HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A young adult asks the nurse about the normal cholesterol level. The nurse tells the client that the total cholesterol level should be maintained at less than:
- A. 140 mg/dL
- B. 200 mg/dL
- C. 250 mg/dL
- D. 300 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 200 mg/dL. A normal cholesterol value ranges between 140 and 199 mg/dL. Total cholesterol levels should ideally be maintained at 200 mg/dL or less to reduce the risk of cardiovascular diseases. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended normal range for total cholesterol levels and may increase the risk of developing heart-related issues.
2. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?
- A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
- B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
- C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
- D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.
3. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Have small, frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals
- B. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods
- C. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake
- D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a client diagnosed with diverticulitis, the nurse should instruct them to eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake. This diet helps in managing diverticulitis by promoting bowel regularity and preventing complications such as diverticular inflammation or infection. Choice A of having small, frequent meals and sitting up for at least two hours after meals may be beneficial for gastroesophageal reflux disease but is not specific to diverticulitis. Choice B of eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods is not the preferred recommendation for diverticulitis management. Choice D of eating a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products may not provide enough fiber to aid in diverticulitis management, and the increased intake of dairy products may worsen symptoms in some individuals.
4. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Administer 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
- B. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
- C. Arrange a consultation with the dietitian.
- D. Educate about the side effects of diuretics.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.
5. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:
- A. Control chest pain.
- B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
- C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
- D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access