HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. A woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative is admitted to labor and delivery reporting abdominal cramping. She is placed on strict bedrest, and the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern are monitored with an external fetal monitor. The nurse notes a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Perform a sterile vaginal examination to determine dilatation.
- B. Determine fetal position by performing Leopold maneuvers.
- C. Assess the fetal heart rate and client's contraction pattern.
- D. Confirm Rh and Coombs status for Rho(D) immunoglobulin administration.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to assess the fetal heart rate and the client's contraction pattern. The presence of a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding in a woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative raises concerns about the well-being of the fetus. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern will provide crucial information about fetal status and help determine the appropriate course of action to ensure the safety and health of both the mother and the baby.
2. When teaching a gravid client how to perform kick (fetal movement) counts, which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. If 10 kicks are not felt within one hour, drink orange juice and count for another hour.
- B. Count the movements once daily, for one hour, before breakfast.
- C. Avoid caffeinated drinks for 24 hours before conducting the kick test.
- D. Exercise for 15 minutes before starting the counting to help increase fetal movement.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When teaching a gravid client about kick (fetal movement) counts, the nurse should instruct them that if 10 kicks are not felt within one hour, they should drink orange juice and continue counting for another hour. This instruction is crucial as a drop in fetal movements could indicate potential issues with fetal well-being, and taking action such as rechecking after food intake is recommended to monitor the situation closely.
3. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?
- A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
- B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
- C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
- D. Recent decreased urinary output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.
4. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 75ml/hr
- B. 100ml/hr
- C. 50ml/hr
- D. 25ml/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.
5. The nurse is planning care for a 4-year-old girl diagnosed with a developmental disability. What should be the primary focus of treatment for this child?
- A. Teach her social skills.
- B. Assist in preventing further disability.
- C. Ensure her participation in group activities.
- D. Help her achieve her maximum potential.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary focus of treatment for a child diagnosed with a developmental disability should be helping them achieve their maximum potential. This approach aims to optimize the child's physical, emotional, cognitive, and social abilities, focusing on enhancing their overall well-being and quality of life. By supporting the child in reaching their highest level of functioning, caregivers can promote independence, self-esteem, and personal growth, which are essential components of holistic care for individuals with developmental disabilities. Teaching social skills (choice A) is important but is just one aspect of the comprehensive care needed. Preventing further disability (choice B) may not always be entirely achievable, but maximizing potential is a more realistic goal. Ensuring participation in group activities (choice C) is valuable for social development, but the primary focus should be on overall potential and well-being.
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