Nursing Elites

1. A woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative is admitted to labor and delivery reporting abdominal cramping. She is placed on strict bedrest, and the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern are monitored with an external fetal monitor. The nurse notes a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Perform a sterile vaginal examination to determine dilatation.
• B. Determine fetal position by performing Leopold maneuvers.
• C. Assess the fetal heart rate and client's contraction pattern.
• D. Confirm Rh and Coombs status for Rho(D) immunoglobulin administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to assess the fetal heart rate and the client's contraction pattern. The presence of a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding in a woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative raises concerns about the well-being of the fetus. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern will provide crucial information about fetal status and help determine the appropriate course of action to ensure the safety and health of both the mother and the baby.

2. Which intervention is most helpful in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains'?

• A. Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen.
• B. Using a breast pump.
• C. Massaging the abdomen.
• D. Giving oxytocic medications.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lying prone with a pillow on the abdomen is the most helpful intervention in relieving postpartum uterine contractions or 'afterpains.' This position provides counter-pressure and support to the uterus, helping to alleviate discomfort and promote uterine involution. Choice B, using a breast pump, is not effective in relieving afterpains as it focuses on milk expression. Massaging the abdomen (Choice C) may help with discomfort but does not provide the same level of support as lying prone with a pillow. Giving oxytocic medications (Choice D) is not typically the first-line intervention for afterpains unless there are specific medical indications.

3. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the differential, as the WBC count can be normal for this client.
• B. Assess the client's temperature, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this finding may indicate infection.
• D. Assess the client's perineal area for signs of a perineal hematoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes oxytocin 2 milliunits/minute to induce labor for a client at 41-weeks gestation. The nurse initiates an infusion of Ringer’s Lactate solution 1000 mL with oxytocin 10 units. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

• A. 12 mL/hour
• B. 2 mL/hour
• C. 22 mL/hour
• D. 42 mL/hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate in mL/hour, first, convert 2 milliunits/minute to milliunits/hour by multiplying by 60 to get 120 milliunits/hour. Then, calculate the mL/hour using the formula: milliunits/hour (120) × total volume (1000 mL) ÷ units in IV solution (10 units) = 1200 mL/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 12 mL/hour to provide the prescribed dose of oxytocin. Choice B is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not derived from the correct formula. Choice D is incorrect as it is not the result of the accurate calculation based on the provided information.

5. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
• C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
• D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.

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