Nursing Elites

1. A teenage boy with a history of recurring atopic dermatitis (eczema) tells the school nurse that he wants to play high school football. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. encourage the teenager to join the swim team instead of the football team
• B. notify the parents of the problems associated with perspiration for those with eczema
• C. tell the teenager to shower with a non-perfumed soap immediately after practice
• D. inform the football coach of the teenager's skin condition and its manifestations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to advise the teenager to shower with a non-perfumed soap immediately after practice. This recommendation can help reduce the risk of eczema flare-ups by removing sweat and irritants from the skin. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the specific concerns related to eczema and football. Choice B, notifying the parents of perspiration problems, is not as direct as instructing the teenager on proper skincare. Choice D, informing the football coach, is not the most immediate and relevant action to address the teenager's individual needs.

2. A first-grade boy is sent to the school nurse after he fainted while playing tag during recess. When he arrives in the clinic he is alert and oriented and his vital signs include temperature of 97.8°F, pulse 96 bpm, respirations 15 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 80/56 mmHg. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. request transport of the child to his pediatrician's office
• B. call the child's parents and send him home for the day
• C. compare the child's body mass index to normal values
• D. measure the child's pulse and blood pressure every 15 minutes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most important intervention for the nurse to implement is to measure the child's pulse and blood pressure every 15 minutes. The child experienced a syncopal episode (fainting) which could be due to various reasons, including dehydration or cardiac issues. Monitoring vital signs frequently will help detect any changes that may indicate underlying health issues. Requesting transport to the pediatrician's office or sending the child home without continuous monitoring may not provide immediate assessment and intervention. Comparing the child's body mass index to normal values is not relevant in addressing the immediate concern of monitoring vital signs after a syncopal episode.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client. Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider report before administering the medication?

• A. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute.
• B. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Client reports seeing halos around lights.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seeing halos around lights is a classic symptom of digoxin toxicity, known as visual disturbances. This finding indicates an adverse effect of digoxin and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider. Monitoring for visual changes is crucial as it can progress to more severe toxicity, leading to life-threatening dysrhythmias or other complications. Apical pulse, serum potassium level, and blood pressure are important assessments when administering digoxin, but the presence of visual disturbances, such as seeing halos around lights, takes precedence due to its direct association with digoxin toxicity. Changes in these other parameters should also be noted and addressed, but they are not the priority when compared to a symptom directly linked to potential toxicity.

4. When caring for a client with a chest tube, which intervention is most important to include in the plan of care?

• A. Maintain continuous suction on the chest tube.
• B. Clamp the chest tube during client movement.
• C. Ensure that the chest tube is clamped for at least 8 hours each day.
• D. Keep the collection chamber below the level of the chest.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Keeping the collection chamber below the level of the chest is crucial in caring for a client with a chest tube. This positioning helps ensure proper drainage of fluids and prevents complications such as backflow of drainage into the chest cavity. Option A is incorrect as continuous suction can lead to excessive drainage and tissue damage. Option B is incorrect as clamping the chest tube during client movement can cause a buildup of pressure and compromise proper drainage. Option C is incorrect because clamping the chest tube for extended periods can impede the drainage process, leading to potential complications.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse is admitted with cirrhosis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Jaundice.
• B. Ascites.
• C. Peripheral edema.
• D. Spider angiomas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral edema in a client with cirrhosis can indicate fluid overload and worsening liver function, necessitating immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as respiratory distress, cardiac issues, or renal impairment. Jaundice (choice A) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Ascites (choice B) is also a common complication of cirrhosis that may require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing peripheral edema. Spider angiomas (choice D) are typically benign skin lesions associated with cirrhosis but do not require immediate intervention unless bleeding or rupture occurs.

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