Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider provides teaching to a group of evacuees in a mass casualty center after a natural flooding disaster. Which information should the healthcare provider include in the teaching plan? (select one that does not apply.)

• A. wash all fruits and vegetables thoroughly in running tap water
• B. identify all sexual contacts since the evacuation process
• C. take all doses of prophylactic prescriptions for diarrhea
• D. clean hands using soap, clean water, or waterless antibacterial solutions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the aftermath of a flooding disaster, educating evacuees on proper hygiene practices like washing fruits and vegetables, taking prophylactic prescriptions, and practicing hand hygiene is crucial to prevent the spread of diseases. Option B, identifying sexual contacts, is not relevant to preventing post-disaster health risks and should not be included in the teaching plan.

2. The public health nurse is creating a plan to increase state funding for a local health clinic. Which strategy is likely to be most effective in obtaining funding for the clinic?

• A. Run the health clinic economically and promote the services the clinic provides.
• B. Organize concerned citizens to write letters and call state representatives.
• C. Highlight to the media the valuable services offered by the community clinic.
• D. Hire a professional lobbyist to convince Congress of the local clinic's value.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Organizing concerned citizens to contact state representatives is likely the most effective strategy to secure state funding for the local health clinic. By mobilizing a group of citizens who are directly impacted by the clinic's services, the public health nurse can create a strong advocacy group that can influence decision-makers. Option A, running the health clinic economically and promoting its services, may be necessary but does not directly address the funding aspect. Option C, highlighting services to the media, may raise awareness but does not guarantee funding. Option D, hiring a professional lobbyist, may be costly and may not have the same grassroots impact as organizing citizens.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL.
• B. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L.
• D. Arterial blood pH of 7.30.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An arterial blood pH of 7.30 indicates the client is in acidosis, which is a life-threatening condition in DKA. Immediate intervention is required to correct the acidosis and prevent further complications such as organ failure or coma. Blood glucose of 250 mg/dL is elevated but not an immediate threat to life in comparison to acidosis. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are within normal ranges and do not warrant immediate intervention in the context of DKA.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
• D. Clonidine (Catapres)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

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