Nursing Elites

1. A client who has been receiving chemotherapy for cancer has a platelet count of 20,000/mm3. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Apply ice packs to bruised areas.
• B. Encourage frequent oral hygiene.
• C. Avoid invasive procedures.
• D. Place the client in a private room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a platelet count of 20,000/mm3 due to chemotherapy is to avoid invasive procedures. Chemotherapy can cause a decrease in platelet count, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. By avoiding invasive procedures, the nurse helps reduce the risk of bleeding complications. Applying ice packs to bruised areas (Choice A) may further increase the risk of bleeding due to the pressure and potential trauma to the skin. Encouraging frequent oral hygiene (Choice B) is important for overall health but does not directly address the risk of bleeding associated with a low platelet count. Placing the client in a private room (Choice D) is not directly related to managing the platelet count and risk of bleeding; it is more about privacy and infection control, which are important but not the priority in this scenario.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute requires immediate intervention. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, suggesting possible complications like heart failure or fluid overload. Monitoring the heart rate closely and addressing any signs of heart failure promptly are crucial. A temperature of 99°F is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is also normal. Fatigue is a common symptom in pneumonia but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention compared to the critical nature of jugular vein distention.

3. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Nausea and vomiting.
• B. Epigastric pain radiating to the back.
• C. Temperature of 102°F (38.9°C).
• D. Mild jaundice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 102°F (38.9°C) is the most important assessment finding to report to the healthcare provider in a client with pancreatitis and a history of alcoholism. Fever in this context can indicate infection, which is a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are common symptoms of pancreatitis but may not require immediate intervention unless severe. Epigastric pain radiating to the back (choice B) is a classic symptom of pancreatitis and should be addressed, but a fever takes precedence. Mild jaundice (choice D) may be present in pancreatitis but is not as urgent as a high temperature signaling possible infection.

4. Which annual screening should the nurse include when planning eye health programs at a preschool?

• A. visual acuity
• B. red light reflex
• C. conjunctivitis
• D. glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: visual acuity. Screening for visual acuity is essential in preschoolers to identify any vision issues early on, such as nearsightedness or farsightedness, which may require corrective lenses or other interventions. Red light reflex (choice B) is a method used to assess the eyes for abnormalities, but it is not typically included in routine preschool eye health screenings. Conjunctivitis (choice C) is an eye infection and not a screening test. Glaucoma (choice D) is a condition more commonly associated with adults and the elderly, making it less relevant for preschool eye health programs.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L.
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L.
• C. Serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg.
• D. Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum sodium of 130 mEq/L. In SIADH, there is excess release of antidiuretic hormone leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L indicates severe hyponatremia, which can result in neurological symptoms, such as confusion, seizures, and coma. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to prevent further complications. Choice A, a serum sodium of 140 mEq/L, is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice B, serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, is also within the normal range and is not directly related to SIADH. Choice C, serum osmolality of 280 mOsm/kg, is a measure of the concentration of solutes in the blood and may not be the most critical parameter to address in a client with SIADH and severe hyponatremia.

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