Nursing Elites

1. A primipara patient asks what is the best pet to have at home to share time with. Which pet is not recommended?

• A. Dog
• B. Cat
• C. Bird
• D. Fish

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Birds are not recommended as pets for a primipara patient due to potential health risks associated with bird droppings, feathers, and dander. These factors may pose a risk to the newborn's health and the mother's well-being. Additionally, some birds can be loud, which may disrupt the baby's sleep patterns. Therefore, it is advisable for primipara patients to consider pets like dogs, cats, or fish as they generally have lower associated risks in a household with a newborn. Dogs, cats, and fish are relatively safer options compared to birds for primipara patients due to their lower risk of transmitting infections, allergens, or causing disturbances that could affect the newborn or the mother.

2. A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the LPN/LVN document in this client's record?

• A. 3-1-2-0-3.
• B. 4-1-2-0-3.
• C. 2-1-2-1-2.
• D. 3-1-1-0-3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct GTPAL for this client is 3-1-1-0-3. G (Gravida) is 3, indicating a total of 3 pregnancies. T (Term) is 1, representing 1 full-term delivery. P (Preterm) is 1, not 2 as mentioned in the question, as twins count as one pregnancy event. A (Abortions) is 0, and L (Living) is 3, indicating 3 living children (twins count as 1). Therefore, the correct answer is 3-1-1-0-3.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a 2-hour-old infant born by cesarean delivery at 39-weeks gestation. Which assessment finding should receive the highest priority when planning the infant’s care?

• A. Blood pressure 76/42 mmHg.
• B. Faint heart murmur.
• C. Respiratory rate of 76 breaths/minute.
• D. Blood glucose 45 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A high respiratory rate in a newborn is concerning as it may indicate respiratory distress, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring and addressing respiratory issues take precedence over other parameters in the initial assessment of a newborn. The blood pressure, heart murmur, and blood glucose levels are important but not as urgent as addressing potential respiratory distress in a newborn.

4. A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
• B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
• C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
• D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.

5. In developing a teaching plan for expectant parents, the nurse plans to include information about when the parents can expect the infant's fontanels to close. The LPN/LVN bases the explanation on knowledge that for the normal newborn, the

• A. anterior fontanel closes at 2 to 4 months and the posterior by the end of the first week.
• B. anterior fontanel closes at 5 to 7 months and the posterior by the end of the second week.
• C. anterior fontanel closes at 8 to 11 months and the posterior by the end of the first month.
• D. anterior fontanel closes at 12 to 18 months and the posterior by the end of the second month.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The anterior fontanel typically closes between 12 to 18 months, while the posterior fontanel usually closes by the end of the second month. It is important for parents to know these timeframes as it helps in monitoring the normal growth and development of their newborn. Delayed closure of fontanels may indicate potential health issues, and early closure may also warrant further evaluation by healthcare providers.

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