Nursing Elites

1. A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to teach the client to:

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol.
• B. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately.
• C. Avoid Swiss or aged cheeses.
• D. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is on isoniazid (INH) therapy, they should be instructed to report any signs of hepatitis, such as yellowing of the eyes or skin, immediately. Alcohol consumption should be avoided during INH therapy due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. Foods high in tyramine, such as Swiss or aged cheeses, should also be avoided to prevent adverse reactions. Additionally, while on INH therapy, it is essential to avoid vitamin supplements containing pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to prevent potential interactions.

2. A client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control, and a sample for a serum drug level is drawn. Which of the following indicates a therapeutic serum drug range?

• A. 5 to 10 mcg/mL
• B. 10 to 20 mcg/mL
• C. 20 to 30 mcg/mL
• D. 30 to 40 mcg/mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct therapeutic serum drug level range for phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. This range is considered optimal for seizure control while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Monitoring drug levels helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for effective treatment.

3. A client who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL, HCTZ) has been started on triamterene (Dyrenium) as well. The client asks the nurse why both medications are required. The nurse formulates a response, based on the understanding that:

• A. Both are weak potassium-losing diuretics.
• B. The combination of these medications prevents renal toxicity.
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide is less expensive, so using a combination of diuretics is cost-effective.
• D. Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, whereas hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The combination of triamterene and hydrochlorothiazide is used because triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which helps retain potassium, while hydrochlorothiazide is a potassium-losing diuretic, which promotes potassium excretion. This combination helps balance potassium levels in the body, preventing imbalances that can occur when using potassium-losing diuretics alone.

4. The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for:

• A. Acne
• B. Eczema
• C. Hair loss
• D. Herpes simplex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Azelaic acid (Azelex) is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. It works by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes in the skin. Therefore, if a client is prescribed azelaic acid, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for acne.

5. After the initial dose, which of the following is the priority assessment for a client being treated for acute congestive heart failure with intravenously administered bumetanide?

• A. Monitoring weight loss
• B. Monitoring temperature
• C. Monitoring blood pressure
• D. Monitoring potassium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring blood pressure. Bumetanide is a loop diuretic, and monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypotension is a common side effect. Hypotension can further worsen the condition of a patient with congestive heart failure, so assessing and managing blood pressure is a priority after administering bumetanide.

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