Nursing Elites

1. When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, which laboratory values will this patient's nurse monitor closely?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, and liver function tests
• B. Complete blood count and electrolytes
• C. Serum calcium and magnesium
• D. Serum glucose and lipids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, such as cefazolin, the nurse should closely monitor laboratory values that indicate renal and hepatic function. This includes checking the Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels to assess kidney function. Additionally, monitoring liver function tests, such as AST, ALT, ALP, LDH, and bilirubin, is essential as cephalosporins can affect liver enzymes. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the parameters that are most pertinent when administering high doses of cephalosporins.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 62, PaCO2 59, and HCO3. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both the PaO2 and the PaCO2?

• A. The hypercapnia resulted from the rapid respirations.
• B. The hypoxic drive was reduced by the oxygen therapy.
• C. The client had a pneumothorax which restricted ventilation.
• D. The client had a pulmonary embolism that reduced perfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In patients with COPD, oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive, which is the primary stimulus for breathing in these individuals. By providing supplemental oxygen, the hypoxic drive is diminished, resulting in decreased respiratory effort. As a consequence, the PaO2 may increase due to the supplemental oxygen, but this can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive and subsequent retention of carbon dioxide, causing an increase in PaCO2 levels. Option A is incorrect because rapid respirations would typically lower PaCO2 levels. Option C is incorrect as a pneumothorax would lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased PaO2 levels without necessarily affecting PaCO2 levels. Option D is incorrect as a pulmonary embolism would typically result in ventilation-perfusion mismatch and decreased PaO2 levels without directly impacting PaCO2 levels.

3. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for

• A. hyperkalemia.
• B. hypermagnesemia.
• C. hypocalcemia.
• D. hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.

4. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?

• A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
• B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
• C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
• D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.

5. After educating a client with hypertension secondary to renal disease, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

• A. I can prevent more damage to my kidneys by managing my blood pressure.
• B. If I have increased urination at night, I need to drink less fluid during the day.
• C. I need to see the registered dietitian to discuss limiting my protein intake.
• D. It is important that I take my antihypertensive medications as directed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is incorrect because the client should not restrict fluids during the day due to increased urination at night. Clients with renal disease may be prescribed fluid restrictions, and they should be thoroughly assessed for potential dehydration. To decrease increased nocturnal voiding, clients should consume fluids earlier in the day. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements. Managing blood pressure is crucial to slow the progression of renal dysfunction. Limiting protein intake is important in renal disease management, and clients should be referred to a dietitian as needed. Taking antihypertensive medications as directed is essential for blood pressure control.

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