a patient has decreased cardiac output following surgery what will the nurse likely see in this patient
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Exam

1. After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.

2. During a 30-second interval, the nurse counts six respirations, and the client coughs three times. In repeating the count for a second 30-second interval, the nurse counts eight respirations. What respiratory rate should the nurse document?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should document a respiratory rate of 16. The second count of eight respirations in a 30-second interval is the most accurate as it was not interrupted by the client coughing. Therefore, this rate reflects the client's typical respiratory pattern and should be documented. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not consider the interruption caused by the client coughing during the first count, which could have affected the accuracy of the result. The second count of eight respirations provides a more reliable indication of the client's respiratory rate.

3. The nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Which action is most important for the nurse to include in their care plan for the shift?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate creatinine clearance results, it is crucial to collect all urine within the 24-hour period. The process should begin with discarding the first specimen and then collecting all subsequent urine in the designated 24-hour collection container. This ensures that the sample is complete and accurate for the creatinine clearance calculation.

4. A healthcare professional stops at a motor vehicle collision site to render aid until the emergency personnel arrive and applies pressure to a groin wound that is bleeding profusely. Later, the client has to have the leg amputated and sues the healthcare professional for malpractice. What is the most likely outcome of this lawsuit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Good Samaritan Act protects healthcare professionals who provide care in good faith and offer reasonable assistance in emergencies. This law shields them from malpractice claims, even if the outcome for the client is unfavorable. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is likely to be protected from judgment under the Good Samaritan Act. Choice A is incorrect because the situation does not involve the Patient's Bill of Rights, but rather the Good Samaritan Act. Choice B is incorrect as the license revocation is not a typical outcome in Good Samaritan cases. Choice D is incorrect as the Good Samaritan Act provides immunity from liability in such emergency situations.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. These are the primary laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of epoetin alfa (Epogen) in treating anemia. White blood cell count (A), platelet count (C), and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine (D) are not directly related to the effects of this medication. Epoetin alfa stimulates the production of red blood cells, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps assess the response to the treatment.

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