Nursing Elites

1. After surgery, a patient has decreased cardiac output. What is a likely observation by the nurse?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Flushing of the skin
• D. Hyperventilation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in cardiac output can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, resulting in decreased urine output. The kidneys rely on adequate blood supply to filter waste and produce urine. Therefore, a decreased urine output is a common observation when cardiac output is reduced. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output is not typically associated with decreased cardiac output; flushing of the skin is more related to vasodilation, and hyperventilation is not directly linked to decreased cardiac output.

2. The healthcare professional observes a UAP taking a client's blood pressure in the lower extremity. Which observation of this procedure requires the healthcare professional's intervention?

• A. The cuff wraps around the girth of the leg.
• B. The UAP auscultates the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg.
• C. The client is placed in a prone position.
• D. The systolic reading is 20 mm Hg higher than the blood pressure in the client's arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When obtaining blood pressure in the lower extremities, the popliteal pulse is the site for auscultation when the blood pressure cuff is applied around the thigh. Auscultating the popliteal pulse with the cuff on the lower leg is incorrect as it may lead to an inaccurate reading. Placing the client in a prone position and wrapping the cuff around the girth of the leg are acceptable practices. A systolic reading that is 20 mm Hg higher in the lower extremity compared to the arm is expected due to the difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower parts of the body.

3. In taking a client's history, the nurse asks about the stool characteristics. Which description should the nurse report to the health care provider as soon as possible?

• A. Daily black, sticky stool
• B. Daily dark brown stool
• C. Firm brown stool every other day
• D. Soft light brown stool twice a day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Daily black, sticky stool. Black sticky stool (melena) is a sign of gastrointestinal bleeding and should be reported to the health care provider promptly. This finding indicates the presence of digested blood in the stool. Choices B, C, and D describe variations of normal stool color and consistency, which do not raise immediate concerns related to gastrointestinal bleeding.

4. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?

• A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
• B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
• C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
• D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a medication is administered via the IV route, the absorptive process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action. This results in a faster effect of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because changing the route of administration does not necessarily lead to increased tolerance or the need for a higher dose. Choice C is incorrect as changing the route of administration does not directly affect the protein binding of a medication. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the therapeutic index would actually reduce the risk of toxicity, not increase it.

5. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding is most concerning to the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
• C. Serum albumin level of 3.5 g/dL.
• D. The client's temperature is 100.4°F (38°C).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) (D) is the most concerning finding for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) as it may indicate an infection, which poses a significant risk. Monitoring blood glucose level (A), blood pressure (B), and serum albumin (C) are also important, but an elevated temperature suggests a potential serious complication that requires immediate attention.

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